Question

If
6
∫ f(x) dx
2
≤
6
∫g(x) dx
2
, then
f(x) ≤ g(x)
for
2 ≤ x ≤ 6
.
True
False

Answer 1

This is slightly better, however, still extremely hard to understand I'm not quite getting the question. @__assassin__ do you understand this?

Answer 2

im looking at it but its hard to read the way you typed it

Answer 3

I agree. This is very hard to understand.

Answer 4

\[\int\limits_{2}^{6}f(x)dx \le \int\limits_{2}^{5}g(x)dx\]

Answer 5

wait \[\int\limits_{2}^{6}g(x)dx\]

Answer 6

I say it is false. Here's a counterexample.

Even though one of the functions has a larger signed area, it can still get smaller than the other function in the interval.