Ask your own question, for FREE!
MIT 18.01 Single Variable Calculus (OCW) 8 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Can someone explain how in Problem Set 1, Problem 1I-3 how the function equals 1 when n -> infinity. I'm having problem seeing this because LN(1) = zero.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Just in Case. The problem is Evaluate LIM(n->infinity) n*LN(1+1/n) Hint: Let h = 1/n, and use (d/dx)ln(1+x), x=0, = 1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

It's explained during Part B of Unit 1, starting with Session 16, I think. Note that while ln(1+1/n) tends towards zero, n tends towards infinity, so n*ln(1+1/n) tends towards something like infinity times zero.

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Latest Questions
Arriyanalol: i need help
2 days ago 7 Replies 1 Medal
Arriyanalol: CONGRATS to me
2 days ago 8 Replies 2 Medals
Legomaster346: What colleges are good that are near Arab Alabama?
1 week ago 5 Replies 0 Medals
Arriyanalol: i need help
1 week ago 6 Replies 2 Medals
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!