when f(x)=cos(x)(1+sin(x))^2 find the average rate of change of [0, pi]
\[\frac{1}{\pi -0}\int\limits_0^{\pi} \cos(x)(1+\sin(x))^2 dx\] Then make a u substitution on 1+sin(x) and integrate.
i got cos^3(x) does that sound right?
It shouldn't be a function it should be a value. Let: \[\psi = 1+\sin(x) \implies d \psi = \cos(x) dx \implies \frac{1}{\pi} \int\limits_1^1 \psi^2 d \psi=0\] So this tells us the average value is zero.
Confirmation: http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integral+of+cos%28x%29%281%2Bsin%28x%29%29^2%2Cx%2C0%2Cpi
when i integrated 1+sinx i got cosx and then i plugged it back into the equation. and combined the cosx and (cosx)^2
It doesn't work that way...
ok
\[\int\limits f(x)g(x)dx \ne \int\limits f(x)dx \int\limits g(x)dx\]
Also \[\int\limits 1+\sin(x) dx=x-\cos(x)+C\]
so i you the chain rule?
? You're integrating there is no chain rule.
I'm not seeing it. i will come back to this problem later.
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