This proof problem haunts me in my dreams. If \(a,b\) are reals such that \(a > b\), prove that there always exists a rational \(z\) such that \(a > z > b\). I got the hint which told me to use the Archimedean Property and the Well-Ordering Theorem.
3 cases to consider, 1) both a and b rational 2) a is rational while b is not 3) both a and b are irrational
@experimentX: Jayesh is too occupied with your proof. Hehe =)
lol yeah :D
well,, we can always say that a>(a+b)/2 > b since a and b are rational, so is (a+b)/2 ! ;)
I can consider the mean of \(a\) and \(b\) if we talk about (3).
@shubhamsrg "REALS". I've received that wrong proof 3 times.
why's that wrong ?
(a+b)/2 is not rational if a and b are irrationals, which is possible as they can be any real number. ;)
ohh,,am sorry! never noticed that ! :P
I got the proof on M.SE chat :) http://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/36/mathematics
did you download the solution i uploaded on MSE chat?
@experimentX: Downloading.
Closing it, thanks guys =)
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