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Mathematics 13 Online
Parth (parthkohli):

This proof problem haunts me in my dreams. If \(a,b\) are reals such that \(a > b\), prove that there always exists a rational \(z\) such that \(a > z > b\). I got the hint which told me to use the Archimedean Property and the Well-Ordering Theorem.

OpenStudy (experimentx):

3 cases to consider, 1) both a and b rational 2) a is rational while b is not 3) both a and b are irrational

Parth (parthkohli):

@experimentX: Jayesh is too occupied with your proof. Hehe =)

OpenStudy (experimentx):

lol yeah :D

OpenStudy (shubhamsrg):

well,, we can always say that a>(a+b)/2 > b since a and b are rational, so is (a+b)/2 ! ;)

Parth (parthkohli):

I can consider the mean of \(a\) and \(b\) if we talk about (3).

Parth (parthkohli):

@shubhamsrg "REALS". I've received that wrong proof 3 times.

OpenStudy (shubhamsrg):

why's that wrong ?

OpenStudy (accessdenied):

(a+b)/2 is not rational if a and b are irrationals, which is possible as they can be any real number. ;)

OpenStudy (shubhamsrg):

ohh,,am sorry! never noticed that ! :P

Parth (parthkohli):

I got the proof on M.SE chat :) http://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/36/mathematics

OpenStudy (experimentx):

did you download the solution i uploaded on MSE chat?

Parth (parthkohli):

@experimentX: Downloading.

Parth (parthkohli):

Closing it, thanks guys =)

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