If a current can flow in a closed loop with changing magnetic flux, where no effective potential difference can be available(since it is a closed loop and assume uniform over the entire length of the loop)? could you please clear me where I am wrong. Thanks
If magnetic flux through the loop is time-varying, your assumption that there is no potential difference is incorrect. Application of Faraday's Law of Induction (FLI) gives us the induced emf (voltage) generated around the loop, which in turn drives the loop current. To determine the direction of the current, apply Lenz's Law (the negative sign in FLI) which says that the induced current "opposes" the change in externally applied magnetic flux.
Thank you Rodgers. Yet my porblem is that since a loop is closed, how can it have potential drops right round for a current to flow. Because say if current flows clockwise from point A. Then all the next points should have a lesser potintial than point A. But since it is a loop one such next point becomes point A again, which has the higher potential (which is the potential of point A as at the start) instead of a lower potential for the current to flow?
no current flow.. where in between there is no potential difference..|dw:1359279641215:dw|
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