Question

Motion in one dimension question ....

Answer 1

i know its C but how we got this answer >>> i tried to solve it and i always get zero as an answer

Answer 2

how do you get zero? v = v0 + at

Answer 3

what is the 'area' under the acceleration curve from 0 to 5

Answer 4

why do we use area under the curve ?

Answer 5

because how do you find the total acceleration over that time otherwise?

Answer 6

1/2 x 5 x 6 .. << is the total acceleration !!

Answer 7

can u show show me the steps of solving it

Answer 8

15 m/s+ (1/2)(5 m/(s^2))(6 s) = 30m/s

Answer 9

s^2 <<< ?

Answer 10

huh? o-o?

Answer 11

via traditional convention m = meters, s = seconds, m/s = meters per second

Answer 12

traditional convension = SI

Answer 13

-.-
whats the value of t ??

Answer 14

SI = Le Système international d'unités = the International System of Units

Answer 15

t = time .-.

Answer 16

t is a variable

Answer 17

i mean that equation .. V=v0+at

what value of t did you calculate it in the equation

Answer 18

and from where did u get it!!

Answer 19

Maybe putting it in different words will help. The initial velocity of the particle at t=0 is 15m/s. Now you have an acceleration vs time graph going from 0s to 5s. The integral of acceleration is the average velocity...which means to get the average velocity over the next 5s, calculate the area under that curve.

In this case, the graph is a straight line and you should be able to see that you can simply look at it like finding the area of a triangle:
\[Area=\frac{1}{2}bh= \frac{1}{2}(5s)(6m/s^2)=15m/s\]
Now add that to the initial velocity to get the final answer:
\[V_{final}=15m/s + 15m/s = 30m/s\]

Answer 20

yeah k . i got it now

Answer 21

thanks

Answer 22

np