find partial derivatives of F(x,y)= integral from x to y of (cos (e^t) dt.
take partial derivatives of \[\int\limits_{x}^{y}\cos (e ^{t})dt\]
ok let's solve ur problem
thanks a lot. I'm waiting for your help
you have to be patient because i get a lot of phone calls
sure. i have a bunch of homework for next 3 tests
take your time.
the answer is zero
i will explain and prove it for u but let me elaborate a bit
as you can see we are integrating with respect the t
but the limit of the the integrals x and y are integers
this will lead to the fact of taking the partial derivative of an integer which is zero
now let me prove that claim mathematically
not that. sorry, I don't agree with you
you will be patient
i know you what you want to say but i will show u how ur variables will be constants
yeah, but the answer in book is not zero, and mine is not the same with the book, that's why i need help
ok
wait are you taking the partial derivative with respect to t or x and y?
yes
u can't just say take the partial derivative like that
why not?
is it f(x,y) of f(t)
or f(t)
i need to know with respect to what?
no, i think you confuse. to me, take integral respect to t first, and then since it integral limit is x to y, replace those value to the result of integral, we have the function respect to x and y. at that time, we take partial derivatives for them
if you take the PD w r t x and y then the answer is different it won't be zero but if you take the answer with respect to t it will be zero
so u should kindly write the question f(x,y) otherwise the question is in complete
now the answer u get with respect to x is -cos(e^x)
Hey, friend, I think the problem is expressed on the way it is. I just copy from the book, exactly what it is
the answer u get with respect y is cos(e^y)
i will show u how
?
well if this is how the question is written in the book as u claim then throw in the bin because it is not a professional mathematical book
you are near right with the book, it's (respect to x) is cos (e^x) not (-) . but how? my integral is not that. please, explain
anyways let me show you the solution
I choose your recommendation to throw the book to bin is the "best response" LOL
\[f(x,y) = \int\limits_{y}^{x}\cos(e^t)dt, f_{x}(x,y)=\cos(e^{x})\]
where y is constant
\[f(x,y) = \int\limits\limits\limits_{x}^{y}\cos(e^t)dt, f_{y}(x,y)=\cos(e^{y})\]
this time x is constant
i hope this matches with ur bin book
hehehe
wait. how can you get int of cos (e^t)dt = sin (e^t)?. it must be sin(e^t) *e^t , right? because e^t is not a number, it is a function respect to t
I just stuck that at that part, the leftover is ok to me.
is the answer correct
so i will explain to u what is going on
i have a phone brb
\[\int\limits_{x}^{y}\cos(e^t)dt= [\sin(e^t)*e^t] from x \to y\] replace x and y we have e^x sin(e^x) -e^y sin(e^y). right? then take derivative that part.
oh, it is sin (e^x)/e^x -sin(e^y)/e^y
i don't get. confuse everything. i'm waiting for your help.
i am sleepy. if you still want to explain, please let it here, i will be back tomorrow, if not, i will send you message to get the answer. thank you verymuch
sorry back don't be confused the function multiplied by the derivative in its chain when you integrate and differentiate u get back to where u were taking under consideration the signs, i will show u the steps tomorrow i need to go sorry about that
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