Prove that the inequality is true for all real numbers a,b,c:
\[ 4(a^2 + b^2 + c^2) - \big[ (a+b)^2 + (b+c)^2 + (a+c)^2\big] \ge 0\]
I got \( a^2 + b^2 + c^2 -ab - bc - ac \ge 0 \). But I don not know how to continue.
I thought that I can somehow start with the fact that \((a+b+c)^2 \ge 0\).
\[\Large a^2+b^2+c^2 \geq ab+bc+ac \] or \[\Large2a^2+2b^2+2c^2 \geq 2ab + 2bc + 2ac \]
i would find the rate at which (a^2 + b^2 + c^2) incraeses and find the rate that (a+b)^2+(b+c)^2+(a+c)^2 increases if you know the first term increases faster, it will always be positive or >= 0
\[\Large (a-b)^2+(b-c)^2+(c-a)^2 \geq 0 \]
\[\Large a^2-2ab + b^2 + b^2 -2bc + c^2 + c^2 -2ac + a^2 \geq 0 \]
So as in the expression above.
The algebraic manipulation is a nightmare though, took me several tries too, I think I have seen something similar to this once a while ago, hence I remembered to add up the terms.
Thanks Spacelimbus.
You're welcome
How did you get the idea of do that?
See your original equation. Not the entire one, there it says. \[\Large (a+b)^2+(b+c)^2+(a+c)^2 = 2a^2 +2b^2 +2c^2 + 2ab + 2bc + 2ac \]
After a while I thought that this is the same as we have in the step where you can say: \[\Large a^2+b^2+c^2 \geq ab + bc + ca \]
So it's basically the same expression (after multiplication with 2) just that after algebraic manipulation the ab, bc, ca, terms will be negative, hence the minus sign in the binomials.
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!