Let z be a non-real complex number lying on the circle |z| = 1. Then prove that : z = \(\frac{ 1 + i \tan ( \frac{ arg(z)}{2} )}{1 - i \tan ( \frac{arg(z)}{2})}\)
wait
\[\large{z = \frac{ 1 + i \tan ( \frac{ arg(z)}{2} )}{1 - i \tan ( \frac{arg(z)}{2})}}\]
non-real complex? do you mean just imaginary?
In which grade do you learn this?
@ParthKohli in 11th grade
I was able to prove by taking RHS and simplifying and simplifying it into such a form which was exactly equivalent to the LHS i.e. 'z' But , the book says this is not a method of proving infact it is a method of "verifying" ... :(
:P Well lemme post what I think,,,, it will take time...
(nothing to do here)
First thing to do is rationalize the denominator. Multiply top and bottom by 1 + i . tan(Arg(z)/2)
you can also do this by taking modulus of given equation
|dw:1360507411970:dw|
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!