Question

1+(1/4)+(1/9)+(1/16)+...............infinity =(pi)^2/6



How??

Answer 1

Use Geometric Progression to prove that

Answer 2

this is not a geometric progression......

Answer 3

The proof of this is very ugly and complicated for many. Why don't you google over ?

Answer 4

just give me an idea where i can find this proof in textbook......what series expansion is being used.......maclarian or tylor series of which functions...........

Answer 5

In progressions chapter which ever textbook whichever series

Answer 6

here.This proof is good.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem

Answer 7

THanks