Done
The part I can't do: Show that there exists a d>0 such that for all x with 0<mod(x)<d, g(x) i not 0, and prove that the limit of f(x)/g(x) is a(sub)n/b(sub)n as x goes to zero.
What's \[C^{(n+1)}([a,b])\]?
sorry, that means that it is n+1 times differentiable on the interval [a,b].
The second part of your question seems to be L'Hopital's rule. Done it?
Nooo, I haven't. Should I look up a standard proof of that?
Basically, because f(0) = f'(0)= f''(0) = f'''(0)...... = f^(n-1)(0) = 0 g(0) = g'(0) = g''(0) = g'''(0) ........ = g^n-1(0) = 0 \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}(\frac{f(x)}{g(x)})=\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}(\frac{f^n(x)}{g^n(x)})\]
That's why it's important that \[b_n \ne 0\]
'Show that there exists a d>0 such that for all x with 0<mod(x)<d' I've not done real analysis, but isn't this a bit trivial as long as x isn't equal to 0?
ah okay, and is \[\lim_{x \rightarrow 0}f ^{n}(x)=f^{n}(0) \] as it is continuous at 0?
Yes
And probably! I'm just having trouble showing it. I thought of maybe going from the epsilon delta definition of continuity but I didn't really get anywhere.
L'hopital is basically differentiating top and bottom (if the limit of both is 0) until the denominator isn't 0 (i.e. the limit itself isn't discontinuous)
Ah okay, that's quite cool (:
Is the comment that g(x) is not 0 attached to the 1st or 2nd question?
The first, I think it's asking me to show that g(x) is not 0 for some d, with 0<mod(x)<d
I misunderstood earlier.
Sorry, I don't know how to help with the 1st question. Intuitively it's obviously true, but I' not sure how to prove it.
No problem, thank you so much for the help with the other part!
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