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OpenStudy (anonymous):
V(r)= - a e^2 lambda exp(-r/p)
---------------- +
4 pi epilson r
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
show that force can be expressed as F(r) = a e^2 (-(r_0)^2/r)
-------------------
4 pi epilson r_0^2
+ exp(- r -r_0/ rho))
OpenStudy (anonymous):
@Jemurray3
OpenStudy (anonymous):
so do I just take derivative
OpenStudy (anonymous):
erm
OpenStudy (anonymous):
\[ V(r) = \frac{-ae^2}{4\pi \epsilon_0 r^2} + \lambda e^{-r/p} \]?
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
yes sir
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Yes,
\[ \vec{F} = -\vec{\nabla} V \]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
In your case, since the potential is a function only of r,
\[ \vec{F} = -\frac{dV}{dr} \hat{r} \]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
so , I get
\[\frac{a e^2}{2 \pi r^3 \epsilon }-\frac{e^{-\frac{r}{p}} \lambda }{p}\]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
which must be equal to give F
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
I don't know... your notation is rather confusing to me so I'm not quite sure what it says.
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