My question has to do with Moment of Inertia. In the derivation used in this course, the prof used the formula for KE which of course involves v^2 as we all know. Then when "continuing the analogy" as it pertains to momentum he used the same I as defined in the KE formulation. My question is since KE has v^2 in it the derivation for I has an r^2 in it aswell, which makes perfect since to me, but since momentum has only one power of v in it then wouldn't the moment of inertia only have one power of r aswell? If it is still r^2 in both cases then I am confused as to how to get to the derivation

Question

anonymous · Answer

... using the p=mv as a starting point for the derivation. Or is there another starting point better suited for all derivations?