I do not understand why..
1/z(z-1)^2 = 1/z (1-z)^-2

Question

I do not understand why..
1/z(z-1)^2 = 1/z  (1-z)^-2

hexagon001 · Answer

$$\frac{ 1 }{z(z-1)^2  } = \frac{ 1 }{z }(1-z)^-2$$

anonymous · Answer

are you sure you not missing a minus sign?

hexagon001 · Answer

nope double and triple checked.

experimentx · Answer

that's squared  ...

hexagon001 · Answer

what is squared?

terenzreignz · Answer

Maybe you need something along the lines of...
$$\Large a^2=(-a)^2$$:D

hexagon001 · Answer

oh i get what is squared.. the -1 is taken out of the brackets but it has to be squared so becomes 1..
they have done that so it is in the form of the basic Taylor series..

hexagon001 · Answer

yes terenz...

terenzreignz · Answer

Then that's settled?  Unless I'm missing something, and I highly suspect that to be the case :D

hexagon001 · Answer

no I think i get it. I was simply over thinking or under thinking..
but now it all makes sense in context to what I am being asked. 
Thanks