both A,B in square matrix space statement1: All eigenvalues of AB are Zero statement2: All eigenvalues of BA are Zero Does statement1 imply statement2? If yes, prove it. If no, give a counterexample Anyone helps me, please
let there be a "non-zero" eigen value \(\lambda_!\) for AB then and only then there exists a corresponding eigen vector \(v\) such that \[(AB)v=\lambda_1v\\ \text{pre-multiplying with B}\\ BABv=\lambda_1Bv\\ (BA)w=\lambda_1w \] hence, \(\lambda_1\) is an eigen value of BA with a corresponding eigen vector "w". but since out \(\lambda_1=0\), the eigen vector \(v\) does not exist and hence neither does \(w\).
and hence BA will also have the same eigen values (0)
let \(\lambda \) be the eigenvalue of B and \(\mu \) of A, then: \(ABv=A(Bv)=A(\lambda v)=\lambda(Av)=\lambda\mu v\) I could put first in the paréntesis A with v, insted of B with v like I did, so AB and BA have same eigenvalues
got it?
the first step goes to the second one seems not stable
?
@myko don't get
using characteristic eq, \[ |AB-\lambda I|=0\\ |AB|=0\implies|A||B|=0=|B||A|\\ \implies|BA|=0\implies|BA-0I|=0 \]
@electrokid how can you know |AB| =0
oh. missed a step \[|AB-\lambda I|=|AB-0I|=|AB|\]
says nothing
using matrices, I simply set \[w=Bv\]
so, in general, the eigen values for AB and BA are same
makes sense?
you mean AB =BA?
in general, BA does not equal AB but we are talking baout eigen values of (AB) and (BA)
sorry young guys. I need time to understand. I will let you know if I have more question or I got it.
ok, got it. how old and how slow am I. sorry guys.
@Hoa you have been enlightened. you are one of us now! lol
hihihi.... give you medal already. good friend
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