Simplify f(x)=(3x^2-4x+1)/(3x-1)Using complete sentences, explain why f(1) = 0, f(0) = –1, and f(–1)=–2, yet f( 1/3 ) is undefined. Make sure to show your work.
@myko ??? Can you help??
\(\frac{(3x^2-4x+1)}{(3x-1)}=\frac{(3x-1)(x-1)}{(3x-1)}=x-1\) so : f(1) = 0, f(0) = –1, and f(–1)=–2 and f( 1/3 ) is not alowed , because it makes denominator in the original expretion 0
Okay so because it's 0 it's undefined? What should I say about why the f(1)=0 and f(0)=-1?
Does that also mean it's a restriction?
you function f(x)=(3x^2-4x+1)/(3x-1) was simplified to f(x)=x-1. So: f(1)=1-1=0 f(0)=0-1=-1 and x=1/3 is not alowed, so it's a restriction
THANKS @myko !!!!! :D
Do you understand why division by 0 is undefined?
yw
When it equals 0 it means it's undefined
Yes that is true, but do you know why?
No why?
In math when we say something is undefined we mean that it is not part of the definition. In the case of division using 0 as a denominator is strictly not allowed.
if \(\huge \frac{a}{0}=b\) then it should be \(\huge b*0=a\). But here is no number \(\huge b\) that multiplied by \(\huge 0\) gives \(\huge a\), because any number multiplied by 0 equals 0
@skullpatrol
that's why
Ok gothcha! Thanks guys!! :) :)
np :)
@myko Your "proof" assumes that "IF a/0 =b then..." but using 0 in the denominator is strictly not allowed by the definition of division itself.
my proof says "In case a/0=b then ...". In other words, " supose a/0=b, then ..." . And you get to imposible situation, so the initial asumption have to be wrong
@skullpatrol
But this case is not allowed by the very definition of division.
that's what I prooved, because división is defind as a*(1/b) = a/b
Division is defined as a/b= a*(1/b) ; b=/=0 note: b=/=0 is IN the definition.
That is why using 0 for b is UNdefined by the definition.
I have read that.
so, if you agree with that, we are set, :)
I'm not saying I disagree. I'm saying it is a matter of definition.
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