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Calculus1 18 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

improper intergral

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\huge \text {prove that }\huge \color{green}{ \int\limits _0^{\infty}\frac{ \sin x }{ x }dx} \text { converges}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

1 fisrt step i did \[\int\limits_0^{\infty}\left| \frac{\sin x}{x} \right|\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\le \int _0^{\infty} \frac{1}{\left| x \right|}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but this is not correct is the enything wrong with this assumption

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yeah that won't work because that integral does not converge i think you need to expand in a power series, then integrate term by term

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i see in the book something like cahnging the intergral to sums

OpenStudy (anonymous):

don't use the absolute value, if you expand in a power series the terms alternate

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes, "sums" is the power series for \(\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

take the power series expansion for sine, then divide everything by \(x\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\sum_{0}^{\infty}\int\limits _{n \pi}^{\pi(n+1)}\left| \frac{ \sin x }{ x } \right|dx\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i didnt do power series so kinda confused

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh okay then i guess you are to break it up as you have above

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but how do we do that,break up

OpenStudy (anonymous):

when you wrote it as a sum, you already broke it up

OpenStudy (anonymous):

actually my question is why those boundaries

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[ n\pi ,(n+1)\pi\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh, because that is the gimmick that is going to work, that is all. it is a trick you can bound each of those integrals, then get a bound for the sum you are not going to find a closed form for \(\int \frac{\sin(x)}{x}dx\) so forget that method you are going to find a bound for it on each of those intervals

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i guess the motivation for those intervals is that you actually know how to evaluate sine at these points

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ie 0 and pi

OpenStudy (anonymous):

for example, consider \[\int_{\pi}^{2\pi}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}dx\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

the largest this can be is \(\pi\times \frac{1}{\pi}=1\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes thats works the intervals are correcly chosen how do i convert that intergral to boundswith 0 and pi

OpenStudy (anonymous):

now you are making me think

OpenStudy (anonymous):

substitution

OpenStudy (anonymous):

man power series would really be a help for this one

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay i would try to learn the series thanks and hopefully it will work

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that integral is of course improper, but not a problem since \[\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}=1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

look at the series for \(\sin(x)\) then divide it by \(x\) and you will see that the first integral converges in fact, it is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) a well known but not obvious result

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