improper intergral
\[\huge \text {prove that }\huge \color{green}{ \int\limits _0^{\infty}\frac{ \sin x }{ x }dx} \text { converges}\]
1 fisrt step i did \[\int\limits_0^{\infty}\left| \frac{\sin x}{x} \right|\]
\[\le \int _0^{\infty} \frac{1}{\left| x \right|}\]
but this is not correct is the enything wrong with this assumption
yeah that won't work because that integral does not converge i think you need to expand in a power series, then integrate term by term
i see in the book something like cahnging the intergral to sums
don't use the absolute value, if you expand in a power series the terms alternate
yes, "sums" is the power series for \(\frac{\sin(x)}{x}\)
take the power series expansion for sine, then divide everything by \(x\)
\[\sum_{0}^{\infty}\int\limits _{n \pi}^{\pi(n+1)}\left| \frac{ \sin x }{ x } \right|dx\]
i didnt do power series so kinda confused
oh okay then i guess you are to break it up as you have above
but how do we do that,break up
when you wrote it as a sum, you already broke it up
actually my question is why those boundaries
\[ n\pi ,(n+1)\pi\]
oh, because that is the gimmick that is going to work, that is all. it is a trick you can bound each of those integrals, then get a bound for the sum you are not going to find a closed form for \(\int \frac{\sin(x)}{x}dx\) so forget that method you are going to find a bound for it on each of those intervals
i guess the motivation for those intervals is that you actually know how to evaluate sine at these points
ie 0 and pi
for example, consider \[\int_{\pi}^{2\pi}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}dx\]
the largest this can be is \(\pi\times \frac{1}{\pi}=1\)
yes thats works the intervals are correcly chosen how do i convert that intergral to boundswith 0 and pi
now you are making me think
substitution
man power series would really be a help for this one
okay i would try to learn the series thanks and hopefully it will work
that integral is of course improper, but not a problem since \[\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}=1\]
look at the series for \(\sin(x)\) then divide it by \(x\) and you will see that the first integral converges in fact, it is \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) a well known but not obvious result
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