hello I have something that i can't solve. There is a function f:R3->R with f(x,y,z)=xy+xz+yz and i know that xyz=1, how do i prove that f(x,y,z)>f(1,1,1)=3 without just replacing the values 1,1,1 ?
divide f(x,y,z)by xyz
i devided again and it's 1/z+1/y+1/z .... but i m not allowed to replace 1,1,1 :) SO WHAT NEXT ?
I'm going to type this up on a LaTeX pdf as it's too long to write up on here, comfortably.
thank u wolf :D
What class is this for? I'm coming up with an elementary proof, but if this is for calc or something, maybe I could use something slightly more sledge-hammer-ish? It's just a bunch of cases and lemmas.
Im confused by R3->R...
It maps the vector-space \(\mathbb{R}^3\) into the real space.
the function is defined in the space R3 with values in R
well i solved it with Lagrange multiplicators but the prof. asked for elementary proof :)) which beats me
Oh, it's not too difficult, it's just kind of tedious... but nice... lol.
it's not nice for me :P
And, for the last proof, note that: \[ (y-z)^2>zy \]Working back up from there gets you the desired result.
There's one more case to consider, where x<1, yz>1, but it's the same as the other one, if you solve it generally.
yeah :D figured it out :D thank u a lot :D
Wait, wait, I believe there might be a mistake in my last statement "\((y-z)^2>zy\)"... agh.
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