A poker hand (5 cards) is dealt from a well shuffled deck of cards. Find (a). The chance that the cards are all diamonds; (b). The chance that the cards are all of the same suits.
There are 13 diamond cards (2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, J, Q, K, A) There are 13 C 5 = 1287 ways to deal out 5 diamond cards. There are 52 C 5 = 2598960 ways to deal out 5 cards of any type So the probability of getting 5 diamond cards is 1287/2598960 = 33/66640 = 0.000495
Thank you so much, I appreciate; but what about the B part of the question?
When you get the first card, it dictates which suit you're dealing with
So let's say the first card is a 2 of hearts
The other four cards must be hearts (to get what you want)
There are 12 heart cards left There are 4 slots left (in the hand) So there are 12 C 4 = 495 ways to finish up the hand you want There are 51 C 4 = 249900 hands total (after you make your first draw) of any card combo So the probability is 495/249900 = 33/16660 = 0.00198079
This probability is slightly higher than the one found in part a) So it's more likely to draw 5 cards of the same suit than to just draw all 5 diamond cards. This makes sense because there are more cases in part b), leading to a higher probability.
Thank you so much.
np
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