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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

check part 1 and help part 2, please

OpenStudy (anonymous):

OpenStudy (anonymous):

give me a hand, please

OpenStudy (anonymous):

let me get to a real computer and we can do this can't really see it on a laptop

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok we have \[\{1,a, b, ab, ba, aba\}\] with the rules \[a^2=b^2=1\] and \(aba=bab\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@satellite73 after u r done helping Hoa, can you please look at my problem: http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/5173404de4b04b62aaef54a0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes

OpenStudy (anonymous):

are you confident about your answers to the first part, or should we check them?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

surely I need you check. not confident at all

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay i have to write them on paper hold on one sec

OpenStudy (anonymous):

first one looks good \[a^7b^3a^5b^7=abab\]since \(a^2=b^2=1\) and then since \(bab=aba\) you have \(aaba\) giving \(ba\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hi friend, what it means? mine is ba and yours is abab

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but aba = bab so i replace to get babb = ba, is it right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes, your answer is right

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that is, \(a(bab)=a(aba)=ba\) which will make the next one easy

OpenStudy (anonymous):

since you can group the next one as \[(abab)(abab)(ab)=(ba)(ba)(ab)=babaab=babb=ba\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so, mine is ok, too?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes both 1 and 2 are correct if you really want to make your life easy, make a 6 by 6 multiplication table for this

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that will also help with part 2 and will also make finding the inverses easy

OpenStudy (anonymous):

got what you mean. ok part 2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

no, sorry, inverse check please

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay you have the inverses of \(1, a, b\) they are there own inverses now how about \(ab\)? it is always the case that \((ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}\) not matter what group you are in

OpenStudy (anonymous):

since \(b^{-1}a^{-1}=ba\) as \(b\) and \(a\) are their own inverses, you have \((ab)^{-1}=ba\) and so necessarily \((ba)^{-1}=ab\) as inverses are unique

OpenStudy (anonymous):

the check is easy enough \[abba=aa=1\] and \[baab=bb=1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

satellite73, i lost you

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh sorry lets go slow

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you only have 6 elements in this group, so no matter what combination of \(a\) and \(b\) they throw at you, it must be one of the six \[\{1, a, b, ab, ba, aba\}\] it can't be anything else

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yeap

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so one way to find the inverse of anything given, is to find the inverses of the six members of the group. then the inverse of whatever is given can be found more easily by figuring out which of those six elements it is. then you will know the inverse

OpenStudy (anonymous):

in other words, the best and most systematic way to proceed is to find the inverse of each of the six elements of your group

OpenStudy (anonymous):

no, not sure, you guide me, please

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you already know the inverse of 3 of the six elements

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[1^{-1}=1\]\[a^{-1}=a\]\[b^{-1}=b\] that much is clear, yes or no?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yeap and (ab)^- = ba as you said above, right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes, and as i said above, no matter what group you are in, matrices, functions, integers, abelian, not abelian, whatever, it is always the case that \[(ab)^{-1}=b^{-1}a^{-1}\] becase \[abb^{-1}a^{-1}=a1a^{-1}=aa^{-1}=1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

(ba)^- = a^-b^- = ab too, right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes, for exactly the same reason also, because inverses are unique, so if you know \((ab)^{-1}=ba\) then it is necessarily true that \((ba)^{-1}=ab\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so the group of inverse is (1, a,b, ba, ab , aba) itself

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok back up a second

OpenStudy (anonymous):

the inverse of an element of a group must also be an element of the group. any group is closed. and of course closed under inverses so it must be the case that the inverse of every element is some other element at the moment, we are just trying to identify those inverses

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so far we have 5 out of the six we know \[1^{-1}=1\]\[a^{-1}=a\]\[b^{-1}=b\]\[(ab)^{-1}=ba\]\[(ba)^{-1}=ab\] all that is left is to find \[(aba)^{-1}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

(aba)^- = (ba)^- a^- = aba

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes, it is its own invere

OpenStudy (anonymous):

:)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

check is \[(aba)(aba)=ab1ba=abba=a1a=aa=1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

now to find the inverse of each of those thing written in problem 2, figure out which ones they actually are and you will know the inverse of each

OpenStudy (anonymous):

for example, since \(bab=aba\) you know the inverse of \(bab\) is \(aba\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes, sir

OpenStudy (anonymous):

and since \[a^3b^4a^7b^{15}=aa^7b^{15}=a^8b^{15}=b\] you know the inverse is \(b\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I have a question, can i reduce the form first, and then find inverse of irreducible form?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that is exactly what i was trying to say, yes

OpenStudy (anonymous):

figure out which of the six it is, then you know the inverse right away

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ty let it there, part C please, the hardest one

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay first off the answer there i are exactly 2 groups of order 6 ( up to isomorphism) they are \(\mathbb{Z}_6\) and \(S_3\) \(S_3\) is the smallest non abelian group

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes,

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so this is definitely \(S_3\) since this one is not abelian but your job is to exhibit the isomorphism directly that is, say what each element gets mapped to

OpenStudy (anonymous):

have to make the Carley table?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

okay hold on i got the notation mixed up they are calling this group \(S_3\) and are asking you to show it is isomorphic to \(D_3\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you can make a multiplication table and exhibit it that way. i guess that is what you are calling a "carley table" but to be honest i have never heard that term or you can simply say what each element gets mapped to

OpenStudy (anonymous):

the elements of this group are \[S_3=\{1, a, b, b, ab, aba\}\] and the elements of the dihedral group are being called \[D_3=\{1, r,r^2,f,fr, fr^2\}\] and your job is to say what the mapping is a huge hint is that each element must get mapped to an element of the same order

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i am afraid that won't work

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh, I just know that, what is wrong

OpenStudy (anonymous):

lets check for example \[\phi(a)=r\] and see why it doesn't work

OpenStudy (anonymous):

or switch b correspond to f

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\phi(aa)=\phi(1)=1\] but \(\phi(a)\phi(a)=rr=r^2\neq 1\) so you do not have a homomorphism, because you need \(\phi(a)\phi(a)=\phi(aa)\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

make sure to map each element of \(S_3\) so an element of \(D_3\) with the same order, otherwise it won't work

OpenStudy (anonymous):

got what you mean.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you might start by mapping \(a\to f\) since they both have order 2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

how to say, it cannot be done in short time , friend. sorry , i am tooo slow

OpenStudy (anonymous):

start by saying \(\phi(1)=1, \phi(a)=f\) and then see what you get from that make sure to also send \(b\) to an element of order 2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

b with r

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ab = fr

OpenStudy (anonymous):

is it ok, first, don't let me go tooo far and then tell me that it doesn't work

OpenStudy (anonymous):

no you cannot have \(b\to r\) for the same reason you cannot have \(a\to r\) both \(a\) and \(b\) have order 2 and \(r\) has order 3

OpenStudy (anonymous):

got it , b = r^2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hmm i think \(r^2r^2=r\) so that won't work

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ha!!!!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you need to find an element of \(D_3\) with order 2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i would just say it, but i am not familiar with the representation of \(D_3\) as \[D_3=\{1, r, r^2, f, fr, fr^2\}\] i usually think of it as\[\{1, r, r^2, f_1, f_2, f_3\}\] where \(r\) is a rotation and \(f\) is a flip

OpenStudy (anonymous):

try \(ab\to r\) since both \(ab\) and \(r\) have order 3

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then you should be able to get the rest from those two

OpenStudy (anonymous):

can you draw it down? It is easier when take a look at the graph

OpenStudy (anonymous):

try \(\phi(a)=f, \phi(b)=fr, \phi(ab)=r\) and see what you get

OpenStudy (anonymous):

we don't have any rule for D2 how can you make it as it is?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you need to know the rules for \(D_3\) that is, the multiplication table

OpenStudy (anonymous):

teach me, please, shame on me, you say something about order 2,3.... I fell like foreign language and wonder why my prof never tell me about that

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh maybe it is just the language it am using. let me be more specific

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\(a\) has "order 2" means \(a^2=1\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

likewise \(b\) has order 2 because \(b^2=1\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

now \(ab\) has order 3, because \((ab)^3=1\) we know this because \[(ab)(ab)(ab)=ababab=a(bab)ab=a(aba)ab=aabaab=1b1b=bb=1\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

the "order" of an element \(x\) is the least integer \(n\) so that \(x^n=1\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

amazing, never know

OpenStudy (anonymous):

so what i am saying is this: if you want an isomorphism between the two groups, you must map elements of the first group to elements of the second group with the same order

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that is why it didn't work to say \(\phi(b)=r\) because \(\phi(bb)=\phi(1)=1\) but \(\phi(b)\phi(b)=rr=r^2\neq 1\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

but to yours when calculate ba i got frf which is not in D2

OpenStudy (anonymous):

since in \(S_3\) you know \(a^2=1\) you have to map it to some element \(x\) of \(D_3\) with \(x^2=1\)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I got what you mean

OpenStudy (anonymous):

wait a second it must be the case that \(frf\in D_3\) since it is closed. maybe you don't know what it is, but it must be in there

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