Integration question: Show that
\[\int\limits_{0}^{1}x ^{m}(1-x)^{n}dx=\frac{ n }{ m+1 }\int\limits_{0}^{1}x ^{m+1}(1-x)^{n-1}dx\]
for m>0 and n>0. Hence or otherwise, show that\[\int\limits_{0}^{1}x ^{m}(1-x)^{n}dx=\frac{ m!n! }{ (m+n+1)! }\]
\[ I=\int_0^1x^m(1-x)^ndx\\ \text{integrating by parts:}\\ part1=(1-x)^n\qquad part2=x^m\\ I=\left[(1-x)^n\int x^mdx\right]_0^1-\int_0^1\left[{d\over dx}(1-x)^n\int x^m dx\right]dx\\ I=\left[(1-x)^nx^{m+1}\over m+1\right]_0^1-\int_0^1(-n)(1-x)^{n-1}{x^{m+1}\over m+1}dx\\ I=0+{n\over m+1}\int_0^1x^{m+1}(1-x)^{n-1}dx\\ \]QED
also, this is the definition of Beta Function
for the second part, you keep reducing the integrand this way and you'd see this is what it'd beome: \[ I={n\over m+1}\int_0^1x^{m+1}(1-x)^{n-1}dx\\ I={n\over m+1}{n-1\over m+2}\int_0^1x^{m+2}(1-x)^{n-2}dx\\ \vdots \]
this would reduce "n" times
you'd end up with \[ I={n!\over (m+1)(m+2)\dots (m+n)}\int _0^1x^{m+n}dx \]
simplify a bit and you get the answer
@electrokid thanks for you explanations! It's very understandable.
you are welcome.
is there a specific question here ?
\[\frac{ n! }{ (m+1)(m+2)........(m+n) }=\frac{ n! }{ m ^{n}+n!+? }\]
I can't convert the integral into m!n!/(m+n+1)! form
Understood the integral process but could not simplify
if we start with \[ I={n!\over (m+1)(m+2)\dots (m+n)}\int _0^1x^{m+n}dx \] the integral gives \[ \frac{1}{m+n+1} \] so you get \[ I={n!\over (m+1)(m+2)\dots (m+n)(m+n+1)} \] we can replace the denominator with \[ \frac{ 1\cdot 2 \cdot 3 ... (m-1)m}{ 1\cdot 2 \cdot 3 ... (m-1)m(m+1)...(m+n)(m+n+1)}\] in other words (m+n+1)! / m! gives (m+1)(m+2)....(m+n+1) Finally, we have \[ I = \frac{m! \ n!}{(m+n+1)!} \]
@phi Oh! So I have to times both nominator and denominator with m! thanks!
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