Conceptual question about indeterminate forms when evaluating limits, and squeeze theorem with limits.
How do you know when you have to take the natural log of each side? Sometimes it seems like you don't have to but then I get the wrong answer. Also what clues you in on a problem that you need to use the squeeze theorem to prove a limit?\[\lim(lnx)^(x-1)_{x \rightarrow 1^+}\] it doesn't show well on the equation but this is the limit of lnx raised to the x-1 power as x approaches one fro the left. this gives the indeterminate form of zero to the zero power. I look at it and think that because it is already the natural logarithm I can use the properties and bring the x-1 down. when I do and evaluate it the result is zero times zero, and the answer then would be zero. The solution guide for the homework shows them setting the entire function equal to zero and taking the ln of both sides. Then at the end of the problem (their way) has lny=0, and by using inverse properties they get that the limit equals one.
Also, is there anything about a problem that ques you in on the fact that you will need to use the squeeze theorem to find the limit?
@amistre64 ?
@TuringTest ?
@satellite73 ?
@Algebraic! ?
role call?
yeah you are all awesome so I tried to get some attention lol
\lim_{x \to~1+}(lnx)^{x−1}
\[\lim_{x \to~1+}(lnx)^{x−1} \]
That is the one
I don't understand why you can't just bring down the x-1 as the first step
is there a reason for that?
the squeeze thrm simply states that the obvoius is true |dw:1368710948069:dw|
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