Limits help again.
am i understanding correctly? if p=q=r =1 then lim x = infinity which is a non zero number but that isnt one of the cases
I am not sure even if the limit exits for other value of p, q ,r other than 0.
it does exist surely
can you give me one set of non zero values of p, q, r? maybe then it would be easier to generalize it.
if x->0 then it's easy case, here n->infty, the problem is lim n->infty sin(x) does not exist. i can't say this is even indeterminate case. since x^p->infty for p>0 and x^p->0 for p<0. the other part sin^q(x)/sin(x^r) <-- this isn't the indeterminate case ... we know that both numerator and denominator does not exist. if the above limit were to exist, you need something like sin^q(x)/sin(x^r)~x^(-p) this is the hard part.
I tried couple of values for q,r on mathematica, it concludes [-infty, +infty] which says the limit does not exist.
for p=q=r=0, the trivial case, limit is csc(1)
\[\Large \lim_{x \rightarrow 2} \frac{(\cos \alpha)^x +(\sin \alpha)^x -1}{x-2}\] can you hint this one then? :|
this one is L'hopital
i know..i have options infinity cos squared alpha+sine squared alpha 0 none of these is it none of these? since im getting logs n stuff.
now i come to think of it, the limit does not exist ... possibly. consider two cases, x->2+ and x->2-
\[\Large (\cos \alpha)^x \times (\log \cos \alpha) + (\sin \alpha)^x \times (\log \sin \alpha)\] this is the differential^
I thought for a while that it can be zero because log cos alpha and log sine alpha both will tend to 0 nearly because cos and sin can yield max value 1 and therefore the log term will tend to 0,but that is just a thought..
no ... it could be negative, or i can be complex valued. it cannot be zero, because cos and sin are never zero at same time. does not exist is possibly answer.
LHL =\= RHL
hmmm,none of these again D:
the top one is always negative since sin^2(alpha) + cos^2(alpha) <= 1 (both cases, when x->2+ or x->2-) the bottom one x-2, it can be both +ve or -ve. although one sided limit exist. \[\Large \pm (\cos \alpha)^2 \times (\log \cos \alpha) + (\sin \alpha)^2 \times (\log \sin \alpha) \]
ah i get it :O
i wonder if x->0 instead of x->infinity is the case in your original limit. i would like to see if it exists.
ill let u know the solution tomorrow of the original question
ok see you then
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