group theory: f:G->H is a homomorphism if n is in Z s.t. (n,|H|)=1 prove: if a^n in the kernel of f, then a is in the kernel of f
thought I would tag you two @joemath314159 @KingGeorge because you two love some group theory:)
You want to work through this problem. I'm not an algebraist, but I have an idea.
@saifoo.khan and @jim_thompson5910 and @satellite73 might be of good good help :P
@zzr0ck3r
sure would love to
what is \[f(a^n)\]
e
and f(a)^n
right
you know what this is <f(a)>
real fast, we proved if f is homomorphism then f(a^-1) = f(a) ^ -1 how can f have an inverse if we do not know its one to one and onto?
yes I do
sorry save the second question till after.
ok
<f(a)> would be the cyclic group generated by f(a)
yes
you know Lagrange's theorem
yes any order of a subgroup divides the order of the parent group
so that tells us that ...
so n divides order of H?
but (n,|H|) = 1
well |<f(a)>| divides |H|
right
need to show |<f(a)>| divides n...then we are done
why ?
why it divides or why we are done?
why we are done
(n,H)=1 and n and |h| will have a common factor...thus |<f(a)>|=1 and hence f(a)=e
|H|
ahhhh very clever
if a|b and a|c and (b,c)=1 then a=1
right right
so we are using the fact that f(a)^n = e and thus f(a) has finite order and thus forms a cyclic subgroup
you should have a theorem or corollary that states that if \(a^k=e\) then \(|a|\) divides \(k\)
yes for sure
that is all you need
wow tyvm. tnx for dragging me along also. it helps allot.
np
what about this "real fast, we proved if f is homomorphism then f(a^-1) = f(a) ^ -1 how can f have an inverse if we do not know its one to one and onto?"
yes
very confused by that
this is still a group homomorphism?
yes
so if \(f:G\to H\) then f(a) is an element of the group H. All group elements have an inverse
ahh so the inverse is an inverse of the element f(a) in H so f(a)^-1 is in H not G? talking about f:g->h
call if \(f^{-1}(a)\)
so its a notation thing that is confusing me
ahh so f^-1(x) is a fuction and f(x)^-1 is an element? in this context?
well I guess that question is redundant, but I'm pretty sure I understand
you know the proof
maybe that would help you understand if you saw that
yeah, I do. I was just thinking that. I think someone in class confused me today because they said f had an inverse. I will clear it up with them and take all the credit:) jk
wow for not being an algebraist you have quite a memory of what the proofs look like...
did you want me to show you or do you know it...it is short
I do know it, ty.
ok
I took quite a few algebra class in graduate school, but most of my course work was in probability and mathematical statistics
you an actuary?
I'm a math professor
ahhh it all makes sense now
my Ph.D. is in mathematical statistics
very cool, I want to be you - the stats:) + something else in exchange
but i really love algebra...beautiful subject
yeah I really like it so far. this is just 300 level group theory but I have to do 2 term 400 sequence in the fall, with 400 real analysis as well.
nice...real analysis is fun too
I took the 300 level one, for us its 311 and 312. I like it, but I like the algebra much more. I am ok with a summer of no deltas or epsilons.
I'm not a huge fan of analysis either to be honest. I much prefer algebra.
lol
I find algebra to be more elegant
for sure. there is just something sort of hand-wavey about calculus. (not really but ...)
I understand what you are saying
Same.
@Zarkon how do we know <f(x)> forms a cyclic subgroup?
by definition <a> is the cyclic group generated by a
so If group G has finite order than any element in G creates a cyclic subgroup?
THeorem: Let \(G\) be a group, and let \(a\) be any element of \(G\). Then, \(<a>\) is a subgroup of \(G\)
great.. ty
np
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