Ask your own question, for FREE!
Algebra 8 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Prove that O(G) mod O(H) =0 ??? Well i'm guessing that i have somehow to use the lagrange theorem to prove the above but am not too sure how to apply it any help will be greatly appreciated thanks :).

OpenStudy (amtran_bus):

@.Sam. @DLS @Eleven17 @jdoe0001 @Jhannybean @jhonyy9 @nubeer @phi

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

um, what is G and H?

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

are these sets or groups? is this number theory, set theory, or group theory?

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

@Stephane1200

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Sorry for the delayed reply, well G would be the group and H a subgroup.

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

ok so G is a group C is a subgroup then ord(C) | ord(G)

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

thus ord(G) modulo ord(C) = 0 i.e there is no remainder when we divide ord(G) with ord(C)

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

and yes this is lagrange theorem.

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

we are assuming G is finite....

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

@Stephane1200 understand?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Ok i think i get what you mean so basically i can use euclid principle to prove the above...

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

hmm, Lagrange theorem says if G has finite order and H belongs to G, then |h| | |g| and since a | b b mod a = 0

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

I forget what Euclid principle is...sec

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh sorry my bad

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

is that not dealing with geometry?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you are right from definition

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

ok :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if H is a subgroup of G then order of H should divide that of G

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

will divide*

OpenStudy (anonymous):

lol yh will divide :P

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hence if it divides there's no remainder the reason why it is zero ?

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

yeah 8mod2=0 8mod3=2 7mod6=1 it gives the remainder

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

9mod18=9

OpenStudy (anonymous):

hmmm with examples it got easier now :)

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

have you done number theory?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

well we covered it a bit

OpenStudy (anonymous):

thx dude now i figured out i will have to use the lagrange theorem maybe not the full proof but at least the definition to demonstrate the claim that O(G) mod O(H) =0

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

yeah, I doupt you need to learn the proof, but its easy. Just know the theorem.

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

p.s. definitions are man made, theorems are just true(if proved).

OpenStudy (anonymous):

lol i already learned the proof and it's quite long xD

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

its easy with cosets:)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yh cosets are easy :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

looks like you already did abstract algebra :p

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

im in it now:)

OpenStudy (zzr0ck3r):

but done with number theory, and your question was more number theory.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh ok i see well i was rounding up the bits and pieces i don't really know given i have exams in that on monday :P

OpenStudy (anonymous):

have you already done ring and field

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!