i really need some help please?
how do i do a fourier series?
f(x) = 1 for -5 to 0 fx = 1+x for 0 to 5
if someone has a link that'd be great
1 worked out a0 = 9/2 can't get what the teacher got for an and bn, so cant combine properly
wikipedia has a decent explanation. you basically just need to findt he constants an and bn
\[a_n = \frac{ 1 }{ 5 }(\int\limits_{-5}^{0}\cos(\frac{ n \pi x }{ 5 })dx + \int\limits_{0}^{5}(1 + x)\cos(\frac{ n \pi x }{ 5 })dx)\]
i got that to, but then he's reduced the answer to = 5/(n^2*pi) ((-1)^n)-1)
Man don't start a calculus question saying just "i really need some help please". I was sure it was an 8yo to lazy to even type the question.
oh. what you want to know is how he got that answer. what is your final answer? ill show u how to convert it
i did the integral within those limits and got values, but mine does'nt reduce down the same way his does
final answer is:
top line: 5x cos(n*pi) + 7n * sin (n*pi) *pi-5 over bottom line n^2 pi^2
so :(5x cos(n*pi) + 7n * sin (n*pi) *pi-5) / (n^2 pi^2)
sorry, that's for a n
mine reduces, since the sins are all sin(npi) = 0 to: \[\frac{ 5 }{ n^2 \pi^2 }\cos(\frac{ n \pi x }{ 5}) \] for x from 0 to 5
sin n pi = 0...? how do we assume that sorry?
which gives: \[\frac{ 5 }{ n^2 \pi^2 }(\cos(n \pi) - \cos(0)) = \frac{ 5 }{ n^2 \pi^2 }(\cos(n \pi) - 1)\]
no matter what n is sin(n pi) = 0. like sin (2pi) sin (3 pi) ect
if it were sin(npi/2), then n would alternate between 1 and -1
ok, so we only assume whole intergers for n
ya because were using a series which goes through integers
from 1 to inf., (since a0 is already in front of the series)
so cos(n pi) takes values of 1 and - 1. so we can write it as (-1)^n
ur a genius! cheers bro!
that explains heaps, think i can duplicate from here
im glad i could help and that you understood :) im actually applying it in engineering atm so i had to brush up on it. i was happy to see a question about it :P
thanks again hey, happy to help
@Euler271 dude, quick query, his answer's : \[\frac{ 5 }{ n ^{2} \pi ^{2} } \times (-1^{n}-1)\]
where'd the last "-1"come from?
ah, not pi sqrd, my bad
mine has it too. it was fromt he limits of the integral (x from 0 to 5) you get cos ( n pi (5) / 5 ) - cos (n pi (0) / 5 ) = ( cos(npi) - 1) for all n
ah, from limits, cool cool cheers
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