does integral ( integral ( (x-y)/(x^2+y*2) ) ) converges or not? (it is double integral) I have this exercise I don't know how to do it I even don't know what does that means , so please help
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
The integral is over what set of R^2 ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
oh sorry forgot so x+y>1 , x>0 , y>0
OpenStudy (anonymous):
the denominator ..x^2+y^2 is it power or multiplication
OpenStudy (anonymous):
@onikadze
OpenStudy (anonymous):
it is power
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
hmm... kk
OpenStudy (anonymous):
@onikadze whts the ans given i am doing same sums soo.... can give the ans
OpenStudy (anonymous):
shall I tell you answer?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
okay the answer is that it is not converged
OpenStudy (anonymous):
here is the way how it was solved 35 th exersise
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
@shkrina
OpenStudy (anonymous):
@onikadze i am sorry i have just stared that it too deep ... they can help u @amistre64 @mathstudent55 @Luigi0210
OpenStudy (anonymous):
okay thanks anyway
OpenStudy (anonymous):
@cwrw238
OpenStudy (luigi0210):
@Jhannybean
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
\[\int\int_{\Omega}\frac{x-y}{x^2+y^2}~dx~dy\]
with \(\Omega:=\left\{(x,y)~|~x+y>1,~x>0,~y>0\right\}\).
Here's a sketch of the region \(\Omega\):
|dw:1372637243003:dw|
Converting to polar coordinates, your integral becomes
\[\int\int_{\Omega}\frac{r\cos\phi-r\sin\phi}{r^2}~dr~d\phi\]