does [(-1)^2n ln(n)]/n converge, converge absolutely, or diverge?
terms go to zero, and it alternates
i assume again you mean the sum if it alternates, and the terms go to zero, that is enough for convergence
sure as hell won't converge absolutely though, because without the \((-1)^n\) you get \[\sum\frac{\ln(n)}{n}\]
here the degree of the denominator is only 1, so it is larger than \[\sum\frac{1}{n}\]which does not converge
\((-1)^{2n}=1\) for all \(n\), unless that's a mistake in your series. If it's not, you have \(\dfrac{\ln n}{n}\), where \(\ln n<n\) for \(n>1\), and thus a monotonically decreasing sequence of positive terms. Apply the integral test. \[\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\ln n}{n}~\text{converges/diverges if}~\int_1^\infty \frac{\ln x}{x}~dx~\text{converges/diverges, respectively.}\]
oh lord i am blind
on the other hand, in my defence, who writes \((-1)^{2n}\)??
Beats me... which is why I think it might be a mistake, or a test.
i wouldn’t use the integral test though, i would use the eyeball test
So how would you solve it?
If you're using the integral test, compute the integral. I'm not familiar with the eyeball test myself...
\[\frac{\ln(n)}{n}>\frac{1}{n}\]
^^^There you go. By the way, even if it is meant to say (-1)^n, WA says it converges... http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=Sum%5B%28-1%29%5En*Log%5Bn%5D%2Fn%2C%7Bn%2C1%2CInfinity%7D%5D
eyeball test: denominator is a polynomial of degree only 1, so it does not converge
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