TRUE/FALSE Let f(x)= tan^-1(x). Then the domain would be (0,pi) and the range is all real numbers.
i think the domain would be all real numbers
@ganeshie8
its false
tanx is one-to-one and onto in (-pi/2, pi/2)
so thats the principal domain for tanx if we wanto think of its inverse
within that range, tanx outputs all real numbers so the domain of its inverse wud be all real numbers as well
so domain of tan^-1(x) is all real numbers
Thank you everyone!!!
does that make some sense ha ?
Yep!
The domain of a function, f(x) is the set of all the allowed values of x (the input to f); the range is the set of values of f (the output of f). So the statement is: FALSE because it's partly backwards, and partly shifted; the domain is all reals, and the range is (-π/2, π/2). [... so that both endpoints are excluded.]
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