TRUE/FALSE
Let f(x)= tan^-1(x). Then the domain would be (0,pi) and the range is all real numbers.
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OpenStudy (blurbendy):
i think the domain would be all real numbers
OpenStudy (anonymous):
@ganeshie8
OpenStudy (anonymous):
its false
ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):
tanx is one-to-one and onto in (-pi/2, pi/2)
ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):
so thats the principal domain for tanx if we wanto think of its inverse
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ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):
within that range, tanx outputs all real numbers
so the domain of its inverse wud be all real numbers as well
ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):
so domain of tan^-1(x) is all real numbers
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Thank you everyone!!!
ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):
does that make some sense ha ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Yep!
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
The domain of a function, f(x) is the set of all the allowed values of x (the input to f);
the range is the set of values of f (the output of f).
So the statement is:
FALSE
because it's partly backwards, and partly shifted; the domain is all reals, and the range is (-π/2, π/2).
[... so that both endpoints are excluded.]