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Mathematics 17 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

TRUE/FALSE Let f(x)= tan^-1(x). Then the domain would be (0,pi) and the range is all real numbers.

OpenStudy (blurbendy):

i think the domain would be all real numbers

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@ganeshie8

OpenStudy (anonymous):

its false

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

tanx is one-to-one and onto in (-pi/2, pi/2)

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

so thats the principal domain for tanx if we wanto think of its inverse

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

within that range, tanx outputs all real numbers so the domain of its inverse wud be all real numbers as well

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

so domain of tan^-1(x) is all real numbers

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Thank you everyone!!!

ganeshie8 (ganeshie8):

does that make some sense ha ?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Yep!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

The domain of a function, f(x) is the set of all the allowed values of x (the input to f); the range is the set of values of f (the output of f). So the statement is: FALSE because it's partly backwards, and partly shifted; the domain is all reals, and the range is (-π/2, π/2). [... so that both endpoints are excluded.]

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