Join the QuestionCove community and study together with friends!
Sign Up
OpenStudy (anonymous):
(n+1)! you can rewrite as (n+1)n!
OpenStudy (anonymous):
So the answer is (n+1)?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
yes
OpenStudy (anonymous):
So for (n+2)!/(n+3)!, the answer is just (n+2)/(n+3)?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
um no what is (n+3)! equal to ?
Still Need Help?
Join the QuestionCove community and study together with friends!
Sign Up
OpenStudy (anonymous):
(n+3)n! ??
OpenStudy (anonymous):
(n+3)!=(n+3)(n+2)(n+1)n.. and so on
OpenStudy (anonymous):
so you can rewrite that as (n+3)!=(n+3)(n+2)!
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Wait, so (n+2)! equals (n+2)(n+1) ?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
that is (n+2)(n+1)(n+0)(n-1)... and can go on , depends on what you have for n , lets say if we let n=1 we would have (1+2)(1+1)(1+0)(1-1) and that is because we have reached 0
Still Need Help?
Join the QuestionCove community and study together with friends!
Sign Up
OpenStudy (anonymous):
oh wait we dont include the 0 until we reach 1 my mistake sorry
OpenStudy (anonymous):
The problem says that it starts at n=1, so then that means that the answer for the second one is (n+3), right?
OpenStudy (anonymous):
ok so for the second one we have
\[\frac{ (n+2)! }{ (n+3)! }=\frac{ (n+2)! }{ (n+3)(n+2)! }=\frac{ 1 }{ (n+3) }\]
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Ah, ok! I see!
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Thanks!
Still Need Help?
Join the QuestionCove community and study together with friends!