Question

a spinner is divided into 10 equal sections numbered 1 through 10.if the arrow is spun,what is the probability the first number will be a 2 and the second number will be a 4?

A. 0.05

B. 0.125

C. 0.2

D. 0.01

Answer 1

BTW the arrow is spun twice

Answer 2

to find this answer you will find the probability of landing on 2, then landing on 4. then you multiply the answers together.

Answer 3

there are 10 spaces therefore the prob. of landing on two is 1/10. same goes for landing on 4.

Answer 4

multiply both fractions together like so:\[\frac{ 1 }{ 10 }\times \frac{ 1 }{ 10 }\]
which would give you \[\frac{ 1 }{ 100 }\] which is equal to.01

Answer 5

This is an intersection probability. Since the outcomes are mutually exclusive, you multiply the two probabilities together to get the intersection probability.

Answer 6

does that make sense?

Answer 7

omfg u guys are so HELPFUL THANK U SOOO MUCH!!

Answer 8

anytime friend!

Answer 9

yes it does than k u so much

Answer 10

you are very welcome

Answer 11

i have another 1 for u.i f u have the time though?

Answer 12

i have time for one more ;)

Answer 13

you roll a die.find the probability of the number you end up rollong being a 3 or a 5.

A. 1/3

B. 1/6

C.1/12

D. 1/2

Answer 14

AND THAN U SOO MUCH U R VERY HELPFUL!

Answer 15

no problem. in the future you can open a new question and then comment saying @montelbaun. it will message me with a link to the question. but for now, i will answer it here! one sec:

Answer 16

o ok i didnt no u could do that. im still new to this just signed up yesterday:P

Answer 17

okay: there are 6 sides to a die labeled 1-6.
the probability of rolling a 3 is:\[\frac{ 1 }{ 6 }\] the prob. of rolling a 5 is also \[\frac{ 1 }{ 6 }\] you are only rolling the die once therefore, you will add the two fractions together.\[\frac{ 1 }{ 6 }+\frac{ 1 }{ 6 } =\frac{ 2 }{ 6 } or \frac{ 1 }{ 3 }\]

Answer 18

and i am new too! just found this site about 3 days ago! its awesome!

Answer 19

yea it is!. and u explain it so well thank u!

Answer 20

no problem! did the process make sense?

Answer 21

yes it did. i get it more now but wat if their was 2 dice?

Answer 22

well it depends. if you want the probability of rolling a 3 or 5 on each die, you would multiply the answer i gave you by itself. as in: (1/3) x (1/3). giving you (1/9).

Answer 23

if you just want the prob. of rolling a 3 on one and a 5 on the other. it would just be: (1/6)x(1/6). giving you (1/36)

Answer 24

ohh ok so the diff. is that u multiply!? same as 3 dice? u would multiply the 3 out aswell? i get it now!

Answer 25

that is correct! and so on for 4, 5, or 6 dice

Answer 26

ok thank u so much! u r the most helpful so far!if i could give u a medal i would!

Answer 27

looks like you already did for the last answer, that is good enough! glad i could help. ive got to go to work now but like i said, in the future put @montelbaun, and if I am on i will come to help!

Answer 28

good luck!

Answer 29

thank u very much!

Answer 30

have a good one, cya!

Answer 31

cya