Verify the identity. cot(x-pi/2 = -tan x I have one explaination...but it doesnt particularly PROVE
I feel like this is too litterary and not enough MATH basis... The original cofunction identity read: cot(pi/2-x)=tan x But by "flipping" or inverting what is in the parenthesis, you have now inverted tan, forming -tan. This is in conjunction with the Odd/Even Identities.
im looking for a more numbery....kind of way of putting it...or well you understnad
$$\bf cot\left(x-\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right) \implies \cfrac{ cos\left(x-\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right) }{ sin\left(x-\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right) }\\ \cfrac{ cos(x)cos\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)+sin(x)sin\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right) }{ sin(x)cos\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)-cos(x)sin\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right) } $$
now you'd just need to keep in mind what is the \(\bf sin\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)\)? what is the \(\bf cos\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)\)?
sin pi/2 is cospi/2 and inverted for cos...
i cant use pictures in my explaination @cwrw238 ...
@jdoe0001 ..was i correct?
well, yes look at your unit circle, sine of pi/2 and cos of pi/2 are pretty conspicuous
haha yes
ok
(0) and 1
well 1 and 0
anything there, multiplying for \(\bf cos\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)\) will be multiplied by 0 and 0 times anything = 0 anything there multiplying for \(\bf sin\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)\) will be multiplied by 1, and 1 times anything is "anything"
ok..wait a second i need to catch up a little ok?
ok
so you get one over one?...
wait no
sinx/-cosx
OOOH
\(\bf \cfrac{ cos(x)cos\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)+sin(x)sin\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right) }{ sin(x)cos\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right)-cos(x)sin\left(\cfrac{\pi}{2}\right) }\\ \cfrac{ 0+sin(x)(1) }{ 0-cos(x)(-1) }\)
THANK YOUUU
I see now :3
fanks
yw
woops I even put a -1 for ... anyhow \(\bf \cfrac{ 0+sin(x)(1) }{ 0-cos(x)(1) }\) better
haha I understand :)
just had a typo
thanks a heap. im glad you explainedstep by step!
np
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