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Mathematics 24 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Show that if a>b, then (b^-1)>(a^-1), provided that a and b have the same sign. What happens if a>0 and b<0?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

well:$$a>b$$dividing by each variable we get:$$a/(ab)>b/(ab)\\1/b>1/a$$note the division is safe and we don't need to worry about the direction of our inequality flipping since \(a,b\) are of the same sign and thus \(a,b\) is nonnegative

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oops, \(ab\) is nonnegative (their product). this makes sense since a positive times a positive yields a positive, a negative times a negative yields positive, and 0 times anything yields 0!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

now, if \(a>0,b<0\) we no longer have the same sign and thus \(ab\) is not necessarily nonnegative; in fact, we actually know \(ab<0\) so when we try the same approach above dividing by \(ab\) necessitates 'flipping' the direction of the inequality:$$a>b\\a/(ab)<b/(ab)\\1/b<1/a$$

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Thanks! I definitely wanted to make sure that 1/b was the inverse of b. I think for some reason I got it in my head that that wasn't true after I worked on inverse functions- silly me XD So thanks again!

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