Separable PDEs...
\[k u_{xx} - u = u_{t}, k >0\]
If we assume that it's separable, we get\[kX''T-XT=XT'\]Divide by \(X,T\), we get\[\frac{kX''}{X}=\frac{T+T'}{T}\]
using u = XY the pde is supposed to yield, kX''Y - XY = XY' but it seems to me that it should be kX''Y - XY = 0
Why does the notation change? and why do we get T'?
I was using \(T\) since we're taking derivatives with respect to \(x\) and \(t\). And we have a \(T'\) since we take the derivative with respect to \(t\) in the right side.
lol ok. I overlooked that.
shouldn't it be: \[\frac{ T' }{ T } = \frac{kX'' - X}{X} = -\lambda\]
I think that's equivalent to what I had, but you could do it that way if you're more comfortable with it.
ok so for T it would be the same method, resulting in: \[T = c_{1}e^{-\lambda t}\] what about X?
Well we get \[kX''=X-\lambda X\implies X=\frac{k}{1-\lambda}X''=\mu X''\]
If I remember correctly, the general solution for this is either \[\large e^{\sqrt\mu x}\]or\[\cos(\sqrt\mu x)+\sin(\sqrt\mu x)\]with the appropriate constants.
Sorry, the cos/sin is not an actual solution, and the first equation should be\[\large c_1e^{\sqrt\mu x}+c_2e^{-\sqrt\mu x}.\]
from: \[X = \frac{k}{1-\lambda}X''\] \[\frac{k}{1 - \lambda}X'' - X = 0\] characteristic equation: \[\frac{k}{1 - \lambda}m^2 - m = 0\]
Shouldn't that be \[\frac{k}{1-\lambda}m^2-1=0?\]
yes lol
But I think I'm supposed to find solutions for each case of: (lambda - 1)/k = 0 (lambda - 1)/k = - alpha^2 < 0 and (lambda - 1)/k = -alpha^2 > 0
Probably a good idea.
but why am I using these three cases with the X'' coeficient and not something else?
What else would you be using?
because it's the term with lambda in it?
I guess that's what you could say. Since \(\lambda\) can vary in such a way that you get all those cases, you technically need to look at them. I would be most careful with the case when \(\lambda=1\) since then you start dividing by 0.
that helps! but dividing by zero does not seem to be an issue because in the solutions it's rearranged that k is in the denominator and the coefficient, (lambda - 1)/k is on X rather than X''
That would certainly make things easier.
So the first case is fine. 2nd case: (lambda - 1)/k = -alpha^2 < 0 so lambda = 1 - k*alpha^2 and therefore X'' - (alpha^2)X = 0
this should lead to \[X = c_{4}\cosh(\alpha x) + c_{5}\sinh(\alpha x)\] but I'm not sure how I would find this.
Sorry, I've had alot of questions. But you've been a great help.
That would come from the solution \[\large c_4e^{\sqrt{-\alpha^2}x}+c_5e^{-\sqrt{-\alpha^2}x}\]Since you have negatives in the square root you get some \(i\)'s, and after some manipulation, you get the \(\sinh\) and \(\cosh\).
Yes! It all seems so obvious now :) You sir, are a god among men.
I think this is all the help I need for now. Thanks again!
You're welcome.
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