n a randomized trial of two drugs to treat depression (drug A and drug B), depressive symptoms decreased significantly in patients on drug A (p.05). It follows that: Drug A is superior to drug B. Drug A and drug B are equally effective. Drug B is superior to drug A. None of the above

Question

n a randomized trial of two drugs to treat depression (drug A and drug B), depressive symptoms decreased significantly in patients on drug A (p<.001) but not in patients on drug B (p>.05). It follows that:  

Drug A is superior to drug B. Drug A and drug B are equally effective. Drug B is superior to drug A. None of the above

kropot72 · Answer

Drug A: p<.001 means that chance alone would produce such a result less than once in every 1000 studies.
Drug B: p>.05 means that chance alone would produce such a result more than 5 times in every 100 studies.
A p-value greater than 0.05 is taken to mean that the observed difference might have occurred by chance. Therefore the null hypothesis (that there is no difference) is not rejected.
In such a case it is not possible to demonstrate a difference between the drugs.

kropot72 · Answer

@danilatif Are you there?

anonymous · Answer

It means the answer is None of the above?

kropot72 · Answer

Your choice is correct.

anonymous · Answer

can it be the Drug A is superior to drug B?

kropot72 · Answer

The result of the test is inconclusive regarding the superiority of drug A to drug B.

anonymous · Answer

ok.... got it... thanx

kropot72 · Answer

You're welcome :)