laplace transfer of sin(alpha*x)
oh man if u had troubles messing up last laplace this one will be even more messier solving it by deffinition of laplace since you will have to use partial integration like 2 times xD
.....yay.....how bout show that this is linear L subscript (alpha f + bravo g) of (s) = alpha L + bravo L
i just realize i have an hour to turn this in lol
oh damn wait a sec
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=gMcs6RF_LrQ http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=-cApVwKR1Ps there quick watch these will take u 30 min max to write it all down :D
why didn't i think of this lol
u should always check there are LOT of stuff that can help you at youtube
you have any shot cuts to any oth ethe other question 1-show that laplace transform is linear 2-find the laplace transform of f prime of t in terms of Ls and use that to fins cos ax 3- show laplace transform 0 to infinity f(u) du is 1/sL (s) FML!!!!
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=D7CP4WTQpBo i belive this is what u need for 1 that laplace transform is linear operator
and about 2 and 3 i dont think i can find videos or smt like that quickly i am not even sure what i need to do there :\
for 2 i was told use integration by parts so 0 to infinity f prime of t e^(-st) at cos alpha*x, this one i guess goes along the sin one I'm doing
3- 1/s 0 to infinity f(t) e^(-st) dt
thats all i know
i dunno what they told u to do for the 2 one but if its to find the laplace like you did for sin(ax) then its pretty much similar if its not that i totaly got no idea what u need to do
thank =x for your help
still here?
yeah i couldnt open the question dunno why
correct me if I'm wrong, lap ace transform of sin ax = a/(s^2+a^2), also like the video showed, my question is, is the answer = prime, let me type exactly what the question says
find the laplace transform of f prime of t, in terms of L(s) and use this result to find the laplace transform of cos ax (hint: use integration by parts with dv= f prime of t dt) so we have integral from 0 to infinity of f prime e^(-st)
ok so it says to do this \[\int\limits_{0}^{infinity}{f'(t)e^{-st}dt}\] if i understood it rgith
yes to solve for cos ax, so since i already solve for sine, i just need to put it together
just don't know exactly what its asking, but i know it relates to the answer os Ls of sin
so it says use integration by parts with dv=f'(t)dt using that we would have : \[\int\limits_{}^{}{dv}=\int\limits_{}^{}f'(t)dt\] so we would have v=f(t)
...ok....?
i have e^(-st) f(t) + integral of f(t) 1/se^(-st)
hum but i totaly got no idea what to do maybe u should post question for that so someone else might help you .. :\
ok
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