I have this series, and I was wondering why, when using the direct comparison test, whould i compare it to 1/n^(3/2) instead of 1/n^2. From what I have read online it seems that when using the direct comparision test, we are looking for the highest power of n in the series. So from the series I have, it seems that I should use 1/n^2 as the comaprison series. but my book uses 1/n^(3/2).
\[\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{ \ln(n) }{ n^2 }\]
does it converge?
by using 1/n^2 and 1/n^(3/2) the series does converge
but why does my book use 1/n^(3/2)
well, direct comparison test states that in order for the series to converge, \(\large a_n \le b_n\) and \(\large \sum b_n\) is converges. In this case, your \(\large b_n = \frac{1}{n^2}\) and we know that \(\large \frac{1}{n^2} \) is convergent by the power series. \( 2 > 1 \therefore C\). So we can conclude, AND prove that this series converges.
Oh wait I think i messed up..........
So I guess they used \(\large \frac{1}{n^{3/2}} = a_n\) instead of \(\large \frac{1}{n^2}\) to show that \(\large a_n \le b_n\) ?
yup your right, by using b{n}=1/n^(3/2) you can say that is greater than a{n}=ln(n)/n^2
:) cool!
cause is used 1/n^2 as b{n}, it does converge,, but ln(n)/n is greater than 1/n^2 so that wouldnt be helpful
Yeah, you got it.
thank you
No problemo :) and thank YOU!
did show that \[\frac{ln(n)}{n^2}<=\frac{1}{n^{2/3}}\]
did you show*
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!