Prove e^x = sum from n=0 to infinity of (x^n)/(n!)
I'm going to start this proof then as my question. My question is basically why we need some constant term c in bounding the Remainder of the Taylor series.
ask*
Let f(x) = e^x, and let \[T _{n} = \sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{ x^k }{ k! }\]
We can define the Remainder of the Taylor series as \[R _{n} = f(x) - T _{n}\]
In other words, \[f(x) = T _{n} + R _{n}\]
To show that e^x = sum from n=0 to infinity of (x^n)/(n!), it will suffice to show that \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}f(x) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} [T _{n} + R]\]
And \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}f(x) = f(x) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}T _{n} + \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}R _{n}\]
Where the limit as n approaches infinity of Tn is the limit of the partial sums of the Taylor series.
If \[\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}R _{n} = 0\] Then f(x) = limit as n approaches infinity of Tn, which means e^x = sum from n=0 to infinity of (x^n)/(n!)
So, we will first show that the limit as n approaches infinity of the Remainder of the Taylor series is zero.
By Taylor's Inequality we have \[\left| R _{n} \right| \le \frac{ e^c \left| x \right|^{n+1} }{ (n + 1)! }\]
Where c is some constant such that 0 < c < x. This is the part where I need help. Why does c have to be a constant between zero and x?
I missed a summation symbol!
The reason why 0 < c < x is because in the general statement of Taylor's remainder theorem, it states that there exists a value c in between x and the point you are centering your Taylor expansion around (in your case you are expanding the series around the point 0).
By Taylor's Inequality, \[\left| R _{n} \right|=\sum_{k=n+1}^{\infty}\frac{ e^{c}\left| x \right|^{k} }{ k! }\]
So, I think I am struggling to understand (or remember) what it means to expand the series around the point 0.
Okay, I am looking at WolframAlpha and it is talking about Taylor Series and expanding around a point, "a".
Does expanding around a point mean that is the starting point?
Is it a horizontal shift?
Ahh I see, Taylor's remainder theorem states \[|R_n| = \sum_{k=n+1}^{\infty} \frac{ e^c|x-x_0|^k }{ (n+1)! } = \frac{ e^c}{(n+1)!}(x-x_0)^{n+1}\] So in our case, x_0 is 0, mainly due to convenience.
I understand how that works mathematically, however, conceptually I am still unsure what "expand around a point means".
@ganeshie8 Do you know what "expand around a point" means conceptually in relation to a Taylor Series Expansion?
Okay, so the point chosen will affect the radius of convergence for the series.
When you expand the taylor series around an arbitrary point, you are basically forming a better and better approximation to your original function (at that specific location) by higher degree polynomials. And as that higher degree polynomial goes towards an infinite degree (taking n to infinity), your function (at that specific point) actually becomes the taylors series expansion
Okay.
I think I can finish the proof from here.
Cool : )
So, \[\left| R _{n} \right|\le \sum_{k=n+1}^{\infty}\frac{ e ^{c}\left| x \right|^{k} }{ k! } = e ^{c}\sum_{k=n+1}^{\infty}\frac{ \left| x \right|^{k} }{ k! } = e ^{c}*(0) = 0\]
Therefore, \[\left| R _{n} \right|\le0 \] Which implies that the Remainder is equal to zero by the squeeze theorem. Thus f(x) = limit as n approaches infinity of the Partial Sum of the Taylor Series, and so e^x = the sum from n=0 to infinity of (x^n)/n!
It seems obvious but I'd still be wary of the use of (without explicit proof) \[\lim_{k \rightarrow \infty} \sum_{k=n+1}^{\infty} \frac{|x|^k}{k!} = 0\] All else looks good. Nice job : )
Thanks for your help domu! Great point, I'll go ahead and prove that to myself.
By the Ratio Test, \[\frac{ \frac{ \left| x \right|^{k+1} }{ (k+1)! } }{ \frac{ \left| x \right|^{k} }{ (k)! } }=\frac{ \left| x \right|^{k+1} k! }{ \left| x \right|^k (k+1)! }=\frac{ \left| x \right| }{ k+1 } = 0\]
This is true for all real values of x since k is approaching infinity. Thus, by the Ratio Test, this series converges to zero and has an infinite radius of convergence.
So at this point I think I'm done. Feel free to ask me any questions or give me any comments.
define \[ e = \lim_{n \to \infty } \left( 1 + \frac 1 n\right)^n \] and expand it nominally show that \[ \lim_{n\to \infty } \left | \left( 1 + \frac 1 n\right)^n - \sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac 1 {k!} \right |<\epsilon \]
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