Question

if \(f(x)={e^{ln~x}\over x}\), then what is \(f(1)\)?

Answer 1

Are you serious?

Answer 2

i'm confused because the answer should b x but thats not one of the choices..

Answer 3

Why is the answer \(x\)? Don't you see that \(e^{ln(x)}\) = \(x\)

Answer 4

Therefore, if you have \(\frac{x}{x}\)....

Answer 5

oh wait, that would make it 1...

Answer 6

omg..

Answer 7

noob.

Answer 8

i know.. .-.

Answer 9

hey quick question..if a function is symmetric with respect to the origin that makes it symmetric to the x and y axes as well, right?

Answer 10

@abb0t

Answer 11

http://www.mesacc.edu/~marfv02121/readings/symmetry/

Answer 12

okay well the question says:

if the curve of \(f(x)\) is symmetric with respect to the origin, then it follows that

f(0)-0
f(-x)=-f(x)
f(x)=f(-x)
f(x) is also symmetric with respect tot he x and y-axes
f(-x)=-f(-x)

Answer 13

@dumbcow

Answer 14

@dan815

Answer 15

i reposted it at http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/52144845e4b0450ed75e04fb