if $f(x)={e^{ln~x}\over x}$, then what is $f(1)$?

Question

abb0t · Answer

Are you serious?

anonymous · Answer

i'm confused because the answer should b x but thats not one of the choices..

abb0t · Answer

Why is the answer $x$? Don't you see that $e^{ln(x)}$ = $x$

abb0t · Answer

Therefore, if you have $\frac{x}{x}$....

anonymous · Answer

oh wait, that would make it 1...

anonymous · Answer

omg..

abb0t · Answer

noob.

anonymous · Answer

i know.. .-.

anonymous · Answer

hey quick question..if a function is symmetric with respect to the origin that makes it symmetric to the x and y axes as well, right?

anonymous · Answer

@abb0t

abb0t · Answer

http://www.mesacc.edu/~marfv02121/readings/symmetry/

anonymous · Answer

okay well the question says:

if the curve of $f(x)$ is symmetric with respect to the origin, then it follows that

f(0)-0
f(-x)=-f(x)
f(x)=f(-x)
f(x) is also symmetric with respect tot he x and y-axes
f(-x)=-f(-x)

anonymous · Answer

@dumbcow

anonymous · Answer

@dan815

anonymous · Answer

i reposted it at http://openstudy.com/study#/updates/52144845e4b0450ed75e04fb