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Mathematics 11 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

How do I find this limit?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Used the bounded-ness of cosine: \(-1\le \cos x\le1\). As \(x\to\infty\), \(\cos x\) will oscillate between these two values, so you're basically dealing with a constant in the numerator.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i'd look at it as: \[\lim_{x->\infty}\left( \frac{ 1 }{ x^2 } - \frac{ cosx }{ x^2 } \right) \] first term is zero \[-1 \le cosx \le 1\] \[\frac{ -1 }{ x^2 } \le \frac{ \cos }{ x^2 } \le \frac{ 1 }{ x^2 }\] taking the limit of ± 1/x^2 tells us by squeeze theorem that the limit of cosx/x^2 is also 0

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