Question

Find the limit of (1+sec(x))/tan(x) as x approaches to pi/2.

Answer 1

Do youget l'Hopital?

Answer 2

tan=sin/cos?

Answer 3

Yes. But do I keep doing derivatives over and over again?

Answer 4

you need to reduce the sec/tan

Answer 5

I am not sure if reduce is the right word...

Answer 6

1) Do you KNOW it is an Indeterminate Form? If so, what type is it?

Answer 7

Do I try to find the common denominator for the numerator?

Answer 8

are you using 'Hopital rule/

Answer 9

if so you need to detmerine if it's in indeterminate form

Answer 10

Ni, the '1' is not significant if it is of type \(\infty/\infty\).

Answer 11

or 0/0

Answer 12

The 1 would be significant if it were 0/0 without it. That would make it 1/0 and NOT an indeterminate form.

Answer 13

So I got (cosx+1)/sin(x)=-sinx/cosx=-cosx/-sinx=cosx/sinx,

Answer 14

I get it now.

Answer 15

Don't do that.

At pi/2, this is an indeterminate form of type \(\infty/\infty\).

\(\dfrac{\dfrac{d}{dx}(1 + \sec(x))}{\dfrac{d}{dx}\tan(x)} = \dfrac{\sec(x)\tan(x)}{\sec^{2}(x)} = \dfrac{\tan(x)}{\sec(x)}\)

You need to learn how to work with tangent and secant directly.

Now what?

Answer 16

tkhunny what is your anser?

Answer 17

We are waiting for Idealist to pipe in.

Answer 18

you can solve it without using the "rule"