integrate sin^2xcos^4x from 0 to 2pi
Both even powers? :( Uh ohhhh
Right?
\[\Large \int\limits (1-\cos^2x)\cos^4x\;dx\] This would take a lot of work to actually integrate. Maybe we can take advantage of some symmetry. Lemme think :d
That's pretty much as far as I got :/
Hmm I don't see any fancy tricks to this one. Looks like we might have to do it the long way.\[\Large \int\limits\cos^4x\;dx-\int\limits\cos^6x\;dx\]
Have you learned about the `Cosine Reduction Formula` ? :o
\[\cos ^{2}x=\frac{ 1+\cos2x }{ 2 }\]
\[\sin ^{2}x \cos ^{2}x \cos ^{2}x=\frac{ \left( 2\sin x \cos x \right)^{2} }{ 4 }*\frac{ 1+\cos 2x }{ 2 }\] \[=\frac{ 1 }{ 8 }\sin ^{2}2x \left( 1+\cos 2x \right)\] i think now you can solve.
Peg I was referring to the reduction formula for powers greater than 2:\[\Large \int\limits \cos^nx\;dx \quad=\quad \frac{1}{n}\sin x \cos^{n-1}x+\frac{n-1}{n}\int\limits \cos^{n-2}x\;dx\] But surji's method is much simpler if you're able to make sense of it.
oh yeah, we did learn that formula recently
I like surji method better though XD Let's try to make that work. You have to remember a few of your identities though :) \[\Large \sin^2x \cos^2x \cos^2x \quad=\quad \left(\sin x \cos x\right)^2 \color{#CC0033}{\cos^2x}\]
As you noted earlier:\[\Large \color{#CC0033}{\cos^2x\quad=\quad \frac{1}{2}(1+\cos2x)}\]
so that takes care of the \[\cos ^{2}x\]
Yes, now this blue part might be a little trickier to relate back to your double identity.\[\Large \left(\color{#3366CF}{\sin x \cos x}\right)^2 \color{#CC0033}{\frac{1}{2}(1+\cos2x)}\]
\[\Large \color{#3366CF}{2\sin x \cos x\quad=\quad \sin2x}\] So what does sinxcosx= ?
double angle identity*
changes it to sin2x/2?
Yup sounds right!\[\Large \left(\color{#3366CF}{\frac{1}{2}\sin2x}\right)^2 \color{#CC0033}{\frac{1}{2}(1+\cos2x)}\]
okay, awesome
then you can plug it in the formula and bring your constants out
We've decided to take a different route. This method won't involve using the Reduction formula. But yes let's pull the constants out first.
Make sure you square the 1/2 that is in the brackets! :O Get something like this? :) \[\Large \frac{1}{8}\int\limits \sin^22x(1+\cos2x)\;dx\]
Darn we should have done the reduction method. Looking back, I actually think it would've been easier than this :p hmm
hahahaha
hmmmm
couldn't after that just use u sub?
u=cos2x du=-2sin2x
No, since the square is on the sine term :( We'd have to split it into two interals, The second one of which we could apply a usub, But the first one we'd have to apply double angle again.
lame
Ok back to the redux formula >:U deal with it!!
I dunno, we've come so far already :p maybe it makes sense just to finish it up with the method we're on lol.
eh, whatever. If I have to go back I have to go back. At least I'll know how to do it for future problems
Well that's the only thing I'm worried about. The way we're doing it now will work out just fine. But the Reduction Formula will make a bit more sense than this if you have to deal with different powers. That is a neat little trick that Surji came up with, applying Double Angle Formulas over and over. But I don't think it's the way you'll want to approach these in general.
then lets go back :)
If we look at the Redux Formula:\[\large \int\limits\limits \cos^nx\;dx \quad=\quad \frac{1}{n}\sin x \cos^{n-1}x+\frac{n-1}{n}\int\limits\limits \cos^{n-2}x\;dx\] We're going to write it in a way that is a little bit more abbreviated.\[\Large I_n \quad=\quad \frac{1}{n}\sin x \cos^{n-1}x+\frac{n-1}{n}\;I_{n-2}\]
So what we have is:\[\Large \int\limits\limits\cos^4x\;dx-\int\limits\limits\cos^6x\;dx\]We can think of this as:\[\Large I_4-I_6\]
Let's widdle down the I4 and see if this makes sense to you.
Grr stupid crash again >:c
then lets go back :)
Ah poopers! Actually we should start on the I6.
why I6 and not 4? Should we start at the larger one?
What happens is, when you use this reduction formula, it reduces the power on cosine by 2 each time you do it. So after we apply this formula `1 time` it will widdle it down to something that includes cos^4x. At which point we can just combine it with the first integral thingy-ma-bobber. \[\Large I_6 \quad=\quad \frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^{6-1}x+\frac{6-1}{6}I_{6-2}\] \[\Large I_6 \quad=\quad \frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x+\frac{5}{6}I_4\]
\[\Large I_4-\color{royalblue}{I_6} \quad=\quad I_4-\color{royalblue}{\left(\frac{1}{6}\sin x \cos^5x+\frac{5}{6}I_4\right)}\]
The I's confusing you at all? :o
eh, it's fine
I have a different idea: Separate the integral into 2 parts, one from 0 to pi (call this I), the other from pi to 2pi (call this J). For the first one, observe that \[\int_0^af(x)~dx=\int_0^a f(a-x)~dx\] Thus, we can see that \[I=\int_0^\pi \sin^2(x)\cos^4(x)~dx=\int_0^\pi \cos^2(x)\sin^4(x)~dx\] And \[I=2\int_0^\pi \sin^2(x)\cos^2(x)(\cos^2(x)+\sin^2(x))~dx=\int_0^\pi \sin^2(x)\cos^2(x)~dx\] so at the very least, I is simpler.
There should be a 2 in the last integral.
\[letI=\int\limits_{0}^{2\pi}\sin ^{2}x \cos ^{4}xdx=2\int\limits_{0}^{\pi} \sin ^{2}x \cos ^{4}x dx\]
You can simplify it even further by noting that sin(x) cos(x)=sin(2x)/2 so that \[I=\int_0^\pi {1 \over 2}\sin^2(2x)~dx\] which is a lot simpler than what we had.
\[I=4\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{2}}\sin ^{2}x \cos ^{4}x dx ....(1)\]
For J, make the substitution u=x-pi: \[J=\int_0^\pi \sin^2(u+\pi)\cos^4(u+\pi)~du=\int_0^\pi (-\sin(u))^2(-\cos(u))^4~du=I\] so what we did previously with I, we do it again here so that \[J=\int_0^\pi {1\over2}\sin^2(2x)~dx\] So that in the end, the whole integral (which is I+J) becomes simply \[\int_0^\pi \sin^2(2x)~dx\]
Please tell if there any mistakes in my solution. :P
\[I=4\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }} \sin ^{2 }\left( \frac{ \pi }{2 }-x \right)\cos ^{4}\left( \frac{ \pi }{2 }-x \right)dx\]
\[I=4\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }} \sin ^{2 }\left( \frac{ \pi }{2 }-x \right)\cos ^{4}\left( \frac{ \pi }{2 }-x \right)dx\]
\[or I=\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{2}} \cos ^{2}x \sin ^{4}x dx....(2)\]
adding (1) and (2) \[2I=\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }} \sin ^{2}x \cos ^{2}x \left( \cos ^{2} x+\sin ^{2}x\right)dx\]
\[4*2I=\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 2 }}\sin ^{2}2xdx\]
\[8I=2\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 4 }}\sin ^{2}2x dx\]
\[4I=\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{4 }}\sin ^{2}\left\{ 2\left( \frac{ \pi }{4 }-x \right) \right\}dx .\]
\[4I=\int\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{4}}\cos ^{2} 2xdx ...\left( 4 \right)\]
adding (3) and (4) \[8 I=\int\limits\limits_{0}^{\frac{ \pi }{ 4 }} \left( \sin ^{2}2x+\cos ^{2}2x \right)dx\]
i have used in various steps \[If f \left( 2a-x \right)=f \left( x \right)\] \[then \int\limits_{0}^{2a}f \left( x \right)dx=2\int\limits_{0}^{a}f \left( x \right)dx\]
now you can complete.
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