x-xnaught=vnaught + (1/2)at^2 Naught is like x0 (starting position) how was the above equation derived? Please explain in simplest terms. math proof not really necessary. but logic will suffice.
a is acceleration v is velocity
actually vnaught (t) srry!
\(\large x - x_0 = v_0t + \frac{1}{2}at^2\)
right, ok
u hav some familiarity wid calculus ? dx/dt, d^x/dt^2 etc...
a bit like derivatives, chain rules, product rule,
that will do :) lets analyze the given equation
it looks like a quadratic in t ?
\(\large x - x_0 = v_0t + \frac{1}{2}at^2\) \(\large x = x_0 + v_0t + \frac{1}{2}at^2\)
notice that \(x\) is a quadratic function in \(t\),
u must be knowing that \(x\) is position of object, and \(t\) is time
lets take a simple quadratic equation and try to derive above
sorry my internet disconnected for a while!
its okay :)
we want formula for position of one-dimensional motion wid constant acceleration. so we better take a quadratc :- \(\large x = at^2 + bt + c\)
thats the position function. how do we get VELOCITY function from above ?
\(\large v = \frac{dx}{dt}\) right ? so simply take derivative of position function , \(x\)
\(\large v = \frac{dx}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} (at^2+ bt + c)\)
wat do u get ?
2at+b right?
exactly, thats the velocity of object
y-yo=1/2(a)(t-to)^2+vo(t-to)
\(\large x = at^2+ bt + c\) --------(1) \(\large v = \frac{dx}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} (at^2+ bt + c) = 2at + b\) ----(2)
find acceleration now
\(\large a = \frac{dv}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} (2at+b) = ?\)
that would be the derivative of 2at+b which is 2a??
yup !
\(\large x = at^2+ bt + c\) --------(1) \(\large v = \frac{dx}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} (at^2+ bt + c) = 2at + b\) ----(2) \(\large acc = \frac{dv}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt} (2at+b) = 2a\) ----(3)
from equation (3), can u solve the coefficient a ?
before u use the equation u need to think about position and time that it start
from (3) \(\large acc = 2a\) =>? \(\large a = \frac{acc}{2}\) ----------------(4)
can u find the remaining coefficients, b and c
once we have values for , a, b and c, we can simplyy substitute this in (1) and get the equation for one-dimensional motion wid constant acc
thats a good point :) lets get to that after finishing playing wid quadratic @sovannayen
b=v-At and c .. this is sort of complicated..
yes, put \(t=0\), then \(b\) becomes velocity at t=0 eh ?
why is t 0?
put t= 0 in equation (2), \(\large v_0 = b\)
because, we want to derive final equaiton in terms of \(v_0\), which is the velocity at t=0
oh I see..
im sure that doesnt convince u much, let me think of explaining u better
or, u can help me lol why t=0 above ?
no I think I actually do understand. v naught equals the velocity at starting time. except, there should be a velocity at starting time shouldn't there?
*shouldn't
there will be starting velocity for any object,
starting velocity can be 0, when its freeling falling from a height,
but I don't think there is a velocity, in other words, there is a 0 velocity at starting time right?
but when u throw a stone, it surely will have a starting velocity other than 0
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