Question

let f:x-> y, be a function, and suppose that x initial belong to X and y initial belong to Y satisfy (x initial, y initial). if (x,y) belong to f, and x does not equal x initial, then y does not equal y initial. is this a true statement? justify your answer

Answer 1

Okay so let \((x_0,y_0) = (0,0) \in f\), if \(x = 1\neq 0\) then does that mean \((1,0)\notin f\)?

I'm giving a more concrete example to see if it contradicts what a function can do.