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a probability density function pdf is f(x)=1/(x^2) 1
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\[\large{F(x) = \int\limits_{1}^{x}\frac{1}{x^2}dx}\]
Thanks @exraven \[F(x) = 1-x^{-1}\] is this right?
It's Ok.
I think it should be interesting to answer the last question that says the problem.
Hi @John_ES May I ask what is unusual about this distribution?
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I would say that the pdf function has no inflection points, but I'm not sure about this.
I mean, I'm not sure is this the true reason they ask for.
Its mean is infinite: $$ \bar{x}=\int_1^{\infty}xf(x)dx=\int_1^{\infty}x\cfrac{1}{x^2}dx=\int_1^{\infty}\cfrac{1}{x}dx=\ln x|^\infty_1=\infty $$ I think this is unusual.
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