\[f(x) =\begin{cases}\frac{xy}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}} & (x,y)\ne 0 \\0 & (x,y) = 0\end{cases}\] a) Determine if f is differentiable at (0,0) b) determine for which unit vectors v = vi + wj the directional derivative \(D_vf(0, 0)\) exists.
\[h(0,0) = f(0,0) + f_x(0,0)(x-0)+f_y(0,0)(y-0) = 0\] \[\lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow(0,0)}\frac{f(x,y)-h(x,y)}{||(x,y)-(0,0)||} \] What I've got is limit does not exist, so it is not differentiable. Is it correct?
Differentiable with respect to all directions?
I think so.
I'm not sure what definition you're using for directional derivative...
\[D_vf(a) = \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{f(a+hv) - f(a)}{h}\]
\[D_{\langle a,b\rangle }f(x, y) = \lim_{h\rightarrow 0}\frac{f(x+ah, y+bh) - f(x,y)}{h}\]
Oh wait, so it is a single variable function then?
a and v are vectors.
\[ \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(ah,bh)-f(0,0)}{h} \]
Are you talking about (a) or (b)?
I'm saying \(v=\langle a,b \rangle\)
I'm starting with a)
\[\Huge \lim_{h\to 0} \frac{\frac{abh^2}{\sqrt{a^2h^2+b^2h^2}}}h \]
That gives\[\frac{ab}{\sqrt{a^2+b^2}}\]
\[ a^2+b^2>0 \]
The \(\mathbf 0\) vector is only direction that it wouldn't be defined I guess? But technically that sort of vector isn't to be used for a directional derivative.
I think so, or else, we'll have a new function for this question. But isn't the definition of differentiability of f at (a,b) like this: \[h(x,y) = f(a,b) + f_x(a,b)(x-a)+f_y(a,b)(y-b)\] \[\lim_{(x,y)\rightarrow(a,b)} \frac{f(x,y)-h(x,y)}{||(x,y)-(a,b)||}=0\] if f is differentiable at (a,b)?
I got mine from http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Classes/CalcIII/DirectionalDeriv.aspx
I've always learned that differentiablility just means that the limit of the difference quotient exists at the point in question.
The first one isn't asking for directional derivative?
Hmm, I see, I'm not sure how differentiability would be defined here.
So it would be that there is a unique tangent plane then..?
I think I understand your definition now. So what is the problem?
Just to confirm if the limit doesn't limit.
for part a
I'm not so sure. You're getting a \(0/0\) which is an indeterminant form?
\[\huge\lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow(0,0)}\frac{\frac{xy}{\sqrt{x^2+y^2}}}{\sqrt{(x-0)^2+(y-0)^2}} \]
Is this what you went through?
\[ \lim_{(x,y)\to (0,0)}\frac{xy}{x^2+y^2} \]
Then you realized this limit doesn't exist?
Maybe I'm retracing your steps here. Since the problem isn't obvious I have to work it out as well.
From that, change it to \[\lim_{r \rightarrow 0} sin\theta cos\theta \ne 0\]So, it is not differentiable at (0,0)
Yes, that looks right.
Wow! *relieved*
Different thetas (directions paths of the limit) are giving different values. Not a good sign for a limit.
They don't necessarily have to be 0, they have to be constant.
No, it gives different values, then limit doesn't exist. When limit exists, it should approach to a certain value...
And from my textbook, it should be 0... o_o
I mean it should be 0 for it to be differentiable.
Nope. Unless they are using some other premise to suggest it couldn't be constant as some non 0 value and then asserting it'd have to be 0
Here's the definition from the book
Oh, the book said it had to be \(=0\). I didn't know that yet.
I was thinking the limit just had to exist
Has it been shown that \[D_{\mathbb{u}} f(x,y)=\nabla{f}\cdot \mathbb{u}?\]
It has been mentioned in the book that \[D_{v}f(a) = \nabla f(a)\cdot v\]
That is useful when assuming a function is differentiable.
Hmm.. But it is not differentiable in this case?
I mean differentiable in terms of the directional derivative, not in terms of that weird definition we used in a)
Honestly I'm not completely sure what the use for that definition is exactly.
We should use this
I already did it.
Hmm, I guess we are done with this question! Thanks a lot!!
Yeah.
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