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show that \[(x \log_{10} (y/z)). (y \log \log_{10}(z/x)) .(z \log_{10}(x/y))=1 \]
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there must be only one log in middle term
yes...it is one log...sorry by mistake wrote two
i am not getting the answer..please help
@mathslover @ajprincess
are you sure you wrote it correctly? this identity is false..counter-example, let x=y=z=1, then left side is 0
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there is one log in middle term.......
ohk.. that makes some sense now :) but still if we let x=y=z=1, then left side is 0. so its a false identity
log(1) = 0
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