can anyone help me look at the following question? Please find attached. Thanks
jeez i can't
Actually, I would like to discuss this question with you. Can? For this piecewise function to be differentiable, it must be continuous on the domain of R
if you take the derivative of the top expression you get \[2x\cos(\frac{1}{x})+\sin(\frac{1}{x})\] if i am not mistaken that oscillates wildly when you are close to zero, so i can't imagine how you are going to make the derivative exist at 0
And for the derivative at x = 0 and x=pi exist, the limit of the derivative must exist as well....
yes, so you really have two conditions continuity and the derivatives must meet up as well
yah......
just want to check and confirm if my a,b,c,d are correct values or not
contiuity at x = 0 and pi exist. the left hand continuity = the right hand continuity
well we have with continuity two things \[d=0\] from the first one and \[a\pi^2+b\pi^2+c\pi=0\]
oops i meant \(a\pi^3+b\pi^2+c\pi=0\)
yes. i agree. I get c = 0 as well
from the derivative?
from the limit of derivative
\[2a\pi^2+2b\pi+c=1\] is what i get
well except that it is wrong, should be \(-1\)
don't you just evaluate the piecewise function?
you lost me
use the above formula. but for this limit to exist, left hand limit must be equal to right hand limit
when x approaches pi and 0
that is the fancy way to do it the derivative of sine is cosine, \(\cos(\pi)=-1\) so you have to get \(-1\) from the middle one
but i am still trying to figure out what you are going to do with \[2x\cos(\frac{1}{x})+\sin(\frac{1}{x})\] because there is no way i can see to make this work at \(0\)
you can use the squeeze theorem
for the case of cos(1/x). for cos funciton, cos is always bound to [-1.1]. so 2x*cos(1/x) is bound to [-2x.2x]
that part is not the problem
the limit of 2x and -2x when x goes to 0 is 0, so by squeeze theorem, the limit of 2x*cos(1/x) when x approaches 0 is 0 as well
at 0 no limit exists
that is the problem
it exists. by squeeze theorem. you may check it out . squeeze theorem
derivative oscillates infinitely often between \(-1\) and \(1\) as you approach 0 from the left
what you are saying is that \[\lim_{x\to 0^-}x^2\cos(\frac{1}{x})=0\] and i certainly agree with that
okay. so what is next. still havent find the values of a and b
no theorem necessary as cosine is stuck between -1 and 1 what i am saying is, this beast is not differentiable at \(x=0\)
if it was you would match up the derivatives and see what you get but it isn't i can't think of any way you are going to make it differentiable at 0
if at x = 0, the attached formula. the left hand limit == right hand limit. then f is differentiable at 0. that is why we need to find the values of a and b
but your problem is you cannot compute that limit, because \(f(0)\) does not exist
you can define f(0) to be 0
lets look at the picture http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=2x*cos%281%2Fx%29%2Bsin%281%2Fx%29+domain+-.2..0
anyway, I need someone to help me solve the problem
ok @nincompoop will get it i am sure
thanks!
I am getting the hang of using wolframalpha lol. but my school uses maple, so I start getting the syntax of the two mixed up
this is a piecewise function. so you shouldn't just look at one single function only
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