Without using any kind of derivatives, find \[\lim_{x\to\infty}x-\log_{10}(x).\]
What if you do \[ \left(\frac 1{10}\right)^{x−\log_{10}(x)} \]
Hmmm...
\[ 10^{\log_{10}(x)-x}=\frac{x}{10^x} \]
can you use logic?
This question arose in a calc 1 class at a point where the students have not yet learned derivatives. We could probably use some basic logic, but not much more.
unless i am missing something, we know log grows slower than any positive power of \(x\) much slower
put \(x=10^{12}\) get \(10^{12}-12\)
Hmm, I wonder if there is a clever way to factor out \(x\) from \(10^x\)
That's all fine and dandy, but how do we know it grows slow enough? If all I know about logs are the basic properties such as \(\log(ab)=\log(a)+\log(b)\), and that it goes to infinity as x goes to infinity, I don't see how to do it.
Hmmm, what about changing the base of the logarithm.
I suppose we could make an argument towards the fact that \(\log(x^2)=\log(x)+\log(x)\), and try and get some kind of inequality about \(x^2\) and \(\log(x)+\log(x)\). You're welcome to try that. It ultimately shouldn't matter much.
Hmm \[ x>N\implies x-\log_{10}(x)>M \]
We know it goes to infinity, so this is ultimately what we need to show.
It is unfair to say that a student would suspect it went to infinity, and then tried to prove it?
The closest I've come (in my opinion), is by assuming the fact that \[x\ge2\log_{10}(x)\]for \(x\) sufficiently large. Unfortunately, proving this inequality requires derivatives, unless I'm missing something clever.
Wouldn't it be for any arbitrary constant, not just 2, to show sufficiently large?
If we're given that \(a\ge2\log_{10}(a)\) for some \(a\), how do we know it's true for every \(b>a\)?
Okay how about this. \[\begin{split} x-\log_{10}(x)&>M\\ 10^{x-\log_{10}(x)}&>10^M\\ \frac{10^x}{x}&>10^M\\ \frac{2^x}{x}\times 5^x&>10^M\\ \end{split} \]We know that \(2^x>x\) so \(2^x/x>1\)\[ \frac{2^x}{x}\times 5^x> 5^x>10^M \]
Also \[ 10^M=5^{M\log_5{10}} \]
\[ x>N\implies 5^x>5^{M\log_5(10)} \]
My only question about that, is can you show that \(2^x>x\) for \(x\) sufficiently large?
> is a lot easier to deal with than >>
Let me think about it...
Okay, so consider \(g(x)=2^x-x\).\[ \forall x_1,x_2>100\\ x_2>x_1\\ 2^{x_2}>2^{x_1}\\ 2^{x_2}-x_2>2^{x_1}-x_1 \]This means that \(g(x)\) is always increasing.
It shows:\[ x_2>x_1\implies g(x_2)>g(x_1) \]Meaning \(g(x)\) is an increasing function for arbitrarily large \(x>100\)
Not only is it always increasing, but it is positive beyond \(100\).
So if \(2^x\) is greater than \(x\) at 100 and beyond 100 the gap never narrows, then that means for arbitrarily large \(x\) we know \(2^x>x\)
Is it still a bit iffy?
It's looking better. Give me a moment to verify everything.
A lot of the inequality stuff only holds for arbitrarily large \(x\). Not for small or negative \(x\) obviously.
Since we're looking at \(x\to\infty\), we can disregard small or negative \(x\). Can you explain how you concluded that the gap never narrows?
Actually, I don't think that matters. We just need \(2^x>x\) for sufficiently large \(x\), and I think this does it.
The gap between \(2^x\) and \(x\) is \(2^x-x\).
This gap has to be \(0\) for one to overtake the other.
Otherwise whoever is greater will retain supremacy.
Excellent work. I think this proves the limit without resorting to derivatives.
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!