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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Someone please explain the squeeze theorem

OpenStudy (anonymous):

the wikipedia page is actually pretty good for that definition. i've referred people to it before and they liked it

OpenStudy (anonymous):

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Squeeze_theorem

OpenStudy (anonymous):

can you explain the integral test?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

for convergence?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

yes for convergence

OpenStudy (anonymous):

sorry i ust lost electricity

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if your series is positive and decreasing, you can treat is as a function and take the integral from 1 to infinity of the series. if the result is not infinity, you series converges [to an undetermined value]. if the result is ± infinity, it diverges (to ± infinity). if you have examples, i can probably explain better

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Einfinity, k=1 (k/(k^2+1))

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\sum_{1}^{\infty}\frac{ k }{ k^2 + 1 }\] first see if its decreasing, to be able to use the integral test. let's treat it as a function f(k). decreasing means that f(k) > f(k+1), ie, the terms keep getting smaller. this is true f(1) > f(2) > f(3) etc. so we can do the test and take integral. \[\int\limits_{1}^{\infty} \frac{ x }{ x^2 + 1 }dx\] let u = x^2 +1, du = 2x dx\[\int\limits_{2}^{\infty}\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }\frac{ du }{ u } = \frac{ 1 }{ 2 } \ln|x|\left| \right|(1 \to \infty)\]\[=\frac{ 1 }{ 2 }\left( \ln(\infty) - \ln1 \right) = \infty\] result is infinity, therefore the series diverges

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